UPSC Prelims-2021 – General Studies 1 Analysis + Explanation

1. The Governor of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is appointed by the Central Government.
2. Certain provisions in the Constitution of India give the Central Government the right to issue directions to the RBI in the public interest.
3. The Governor of the RBI draws his power from the RBI Act.

Which of the above statements are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Statements 1 and 3 are correct but 2 is not. Remember that entire structure of RBI came into being in 1935, as per the RBI Act, 1934.

The governor of RBI is indeed appointed by the government of India. So statement 1 is correct.

The RBI is not a constitutional body, as it was established under the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934. The independence of the RBI is not constitutional. Though originally privately owned, since nationalisation in 1949, the Reserve Bank is fully owned by the Government of India. The Indian Constitution under the Seventh Schedule (Article 246) lays down the respective functions and financial resources of the Government at the Union and State level and contains three lists as know. In List I – Union List (97 Items), it does mention the RBI ( Functions: Defense, Atomic Energy and Mineral Resources, Foreign Affairs, Diplomatic Relations, Railways, Airways, Posts and Telegraph, Public Debt of the Union, Currency and Coinage, RBI, Banking, Insurance, Stock Exchanges, etc.) but does not give details of how power is to be exercised.

But as the RBI Act, 1934, per Chapter 2, clause 7, “Management” – (1) The Central Government may from time to time give such directions to the Bank as it may, after consultation with the Governor of the Bank, consider necessary in the public interest.

So statement 2 is not correct.

The governor indeed derives his powers from the RBI Act, 1934.

In October 2018, the government invoked never-before-used powers under the RBI Act allowing it to issue directions to the central bank governor on matters of public interest, in a development that gives a new twist to the ongoing skirmish between RBI and the government. The Section 7 of the RBI Act empowers the government to consult and give instructions to the governor to act on certain issues that the government considers serious and in public interest. This Section had never been used in independent India till now. It was not used even when the country was close to default in the dark days of 1991, nor in the aftermath of the 2008 crisis.

Statement 3 is correct.

1. All casual workers are entitled for Employees Provident Fund coverage.
2. All casual workers are entitled for regular working hours and overtime payment.
3. The government can by a notification specify that an establishment or industry shall pay wages only through its bank account.

Which of the above statements are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

So statement 1 is correct. So option (b) is wrong.

The reforms in labour laws now mandate overtime payment even for casual workers. So statement 2 is also right.

Statement 3 is right.

1. Cut in tax rates accompanied by increase in interest rate
2. Increase in expenditure on public projects
3. Increase in tax rates accompanied
4. Reduction of expenditure on public projects

Other things remaining unchanged, market demand for a good might increase if

1. price of its substitute increases
2. price of its complement increases
3. the good is an inferior good and the income of the consumers increases its price falls
4. Its prices fall

Which of the above statements are correct?

1. 1 and 4 only
2. 2, 3 and 4
3. 1, 3 and 4
4. 1, 2 and 3

A complementary good adds value to another, and are used together. Cereals and milk go together. If one becomes costlier, other may suffer.

An inferior good – by definition – is a good whose demand drops when people’s incomes rise!

Clearly, 1 and 4 will lead to rise in demand of the good, but 2 and 3 will not.

1. They are supervised and regulated by local boards set up by the State Governments.
2. They can issue equity shares and preference shares.
3. They were brought under the purview of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949 through an Amendment in 1966.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

So 3 is surely right.

Regarding regulating the UCBs, RBI informs that it ‘regulates and supervises the banking functions of UCBs under the provisions of Banking regulation Act, 1949. Within the Reserve Bank, a separate department, viz. Urban Banks Department, has been entrusted with these functions. Urban Banks Department functions in close coordination with other regulators viz., Registrar of Cooperative Societies and Central Registrar of Cooperative Societies.

So statement 1 is not correct.

1. Actions of the United States Federal Reserve
2. Actions of the Reserve Bank of India
3. Inflation and short-term interest rates

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 only
3. 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Bond yield means the returns an investor will derive by investing in the bond. The mathematical formula for calculating yield is the annual coupon rate divided by the current market price of the bond.

The reason bond yields change (rise or fall) could be due to good or bad outcomes in the economy. It could be due to inflation from weaker rupee and hence more expensive oil imports, or consumption-led inflation where demand increase or supply shocks due to low production during the lockdown, or due to expected higher default risk and perhaps lower credit rating, or could be people selling risk-free bonds for risky equity. Usually it’s a mix of one of these as well as the overall supply-demand of government bonds (something that the RBI can control).

If the US Treasury yields continue to rise, inflation continues to climb, and an improving economy pushes central banks to change policy stance, then it may lead to massive foreign fund outflows, forcing India’s share market into further correction.

1. Foreign currency convertible bonds of
2. Foreign institutional investment with certain conditions
3. Global depository receipts
4. Non-resident external deposits

Which of the above can be included in Foreign Direct Investments?

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 3 only
3. 2 and 4
4. 1 and 4

Now, 3 is definitely not FDI, but FPI, hence option (a) is ruled out.

‘Non-resident entity’ means a ‘person resident outside India’ as defined under FEMA. ‘Non-Resident Indian’ (NRI) means an individual resident outside India who is a citizen of India. NRED are considered FDI.

Hence, (d).

The effect of devaluation of a currency is that it necessarily

1. Improves the competitiveness of the domestic exports in the foreign markets
2. increases the foreign domestic currency value
3. improves the trade balance of

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 1 and 2
3. 3 only
4. 2 and 3

It actually decreases the foreign value of domestic currency, so 2 is not true. Only possible option is Option (a).

1. 1. Diversion of resources to the purchase of real estate and investment in luxury housing
   2. Investment in unproductive activities and purchase of precious stones, jewellery, gold, etc.
   3. Large donations to political parties and growth of regionalism
   4. Loss of revenue to the State Exchequer due to tax evasion

All four options sound enticing enough, but (a) and (b) do not affect the government as much as (d) surely does. If the government revenues fall, it is a direct hit. Option (c) is not a concern because all political parties enjoy large donations, if possible. The use of “regionalism” makes (c) wrong, too.

1. Repayment of public debt
2. Borrowing from the public to finance a budget deficit
3. Borrowing from the banks to finance a budget deficit
4. Creation of new money to finance a budget deficit

In option (d), i.e., creation of new money to finance a budget deficit will increase the supply of currency notes, which is a reason for the inflation. When the supply of money increases in the market, the customer demand automatically increases, which cause the price rise.

Budget deficit happens when total expenditure exceeds total revenue. Deficit financing is a tool to generate funds in order to gap the budget deficit. This can be done in three ways, first by creating new money; second by borrowing from internal sources (ex. RBI, by issuing bonds etc.) and third by borrowing from external sources (ex. WB, IMF etc.).

1. Increase in the Cash Reserve Ratio in the banks
2. Increase in the Statutory Liquidity Ratio in the banks
3. Increase in the banking habit of the people
4. Increase in the population of the country

If more people start banking, then credit will rise and money multiplier too will.

As for the CRR, the smaller the cash reserve ratio is, the larger the increase it brings to the money supply, because more of the customers’ deposits get loaned out by the bank. So higher CRR means lower money multiplier. Same holds for SLR also.

1. Expansionary policies
2. Fiscal stimulus
3. Inflation-indexing wages
4. Higher purchasing power
5. Rising interest rates

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1. 1, 2 and 4 only
2. 3, 4 and 5 only
3. 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
4. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Focus on 5 – rising interest rates. That will not lead to more demand (via more credit) but less demand.

Hence, (d) is gone. Hence (a) is right!

Short Cut: If you can identify that 5 is wrong, then three options (b, c, d) get ruled out instantly.

1. Retail investors through demat account can invest in ‘Treasury Bills’ and ‘Government of India Debt Bonds’ in primary market.
2. The ‘Negotiated Dealing System-Order Matching’ is a government securities trading platform of the Reserve Bank of India.
3. The ‘Central Depository Services Ltd.’ is jointly promoted by the Reserve Bank of India and the Bombay Stock Exchange.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 1 and 2
3. 3 only
4. 2 and 3

Both 1 and 2 are correct. Retail investors are allowed to invest in primary market of T-bills and G-secs.

The Negotiated Dealing System, or NDS, is an electronic trading platform operated by the Reserve Bank of India to allow issuing and exchange of government securities and other money market instruments. The goal was to cut manual paperwork, and raise transparency for all participants.

CDSL was initially promoted by Bombay Stock Exchange Ltd (BSE Ltd) – the Asia’s latest Stock Exchange. Other shareholders include HDFC Bank Ltd, Standard Chartered Bank and Canara Bank. The RBI was not involved. So, 3 is wrong. So (c) and (d) are ruled out.

1. It puts micro finance tools to work in the water and sanitation sector.
2. It is a global initiative launched under the aegis of the World Health Organization and the World Bank.
3. It aims to enable the poor people to meet their water needs without depending on subsidies.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Water.org is a global nonprofit organization working to bring water and sanitation to the world. It wants to make it safe, accessible, and cost-effective. It is not associated with WHO or WB. (Hence three options can be ruled out directly – a, b and d)

It helps people get access to safe water and sanitation through affordable financing, such as small loans.

A key barrier to safe water and sanitation is affordable financing. The WaterCredit Initiative® loan program addresses this barrier head-on. WaterCredit helps bring small loans to those who need access to affordable financing and expert resources to make household water and toilet solutions a reality.

WaterCredit is a powerful solution and the first to put microfinance tools to work in the water and sanitation sector. WaterCredit helps bring small loans to those who need access to affordable financing and expert resources to make household water and toilet solutions a reality.

Short Cut: If you can identify that 2 is wrong, then three options (a, b, d) get ruled out instantly.

1. Lending to trade and industry bodies when they fail to borrow from other sources
2. Providing liquidity to the banks having a temporary crisis
3. Lending to governments to finance budgetary deficits

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1. 1 and 2
2. 2 only
3. 2 and 3
4. 3 only

RBI does not act as lender of last resort for deficit monetization of union government.

1. environmentally responsible practices in electronics recycling industry
2. ecological management of `Wetlands of International Importance’ under the Ramsar Convention
3. sustainable practices in the cultivation of agricultural crops in degraded lands
4. ‘Environmental Impact Assessment’ in the exploitation of natural resources

1. They may quantities of release lethal carbon monoxide into environment.
2. The copper slag can cause the leaching of some heavy metals into environment.
3. They may release sulphur dioxide as a pollutant.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

The basic copper smelting reaction Cu₂O + CO → 2Cu + CO₂ produces copper and volatile carbon dioxide and nothing else.

Smelting means to rip apart some molecule that contains a metal. It will be broken up into the elemental metal and something else. We “reduce” the molecule in a reduction process (mostly by reacting it with some reducing agent like carbon monoxide (CO)).

Mined ores are processed to concentrate the minerals of interest. In the case of metal ores, these mineral concentrates usually need to be further processed to separate the metal from other elements in the ore minerals. Smelting is the process of separating the metal from impurities by heating the concentrate to a high temperature to cause the metal to melt (along with a solid waste product called slag)

The main sources of pollution caused by smelting are contaminant-laden air emissions and process wastes such as wastewater and slag. It releases toxic metals like copper, silver, iron, cobalt and selenium into the atmosphere. Smelters also release gaseous sulfur dioxide, contributing to acid rain, which acidifies soil and water.

The smelting of sulfide ores results in the emission of sulfur dioxide gas, which reacts chemically in the atmosphere to form a sulfuric acid mist. As this acid rain falls to the earth, it increases the acidity of soils, streams, and lakes, harming the health of vegetation and fish and wildlife populations

The smelting process accounts for about 17 percent of greenhouse gas emissions from the aluminum industry and 1 percent of total global CO2 emissions.

Short Cut: If you can identify that 1 is wrong, then three options (a, c, d) get ruled out instantly.

1. It is a product of oil refineries.
2. Some industries use it to generate power.
3. Its use causes sulphur emissions into environment.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

It consists mainly of residues from crude-oil distillation. It is used primarily for steam boilers in power plants, aboard ships, and in industrial plants. Commercial fuel oils usually are blended with other petroleum fractions to produce the desired viscosity and flash point.

Residual fuel oil (furnace oil) is less useful because it is so viscous that it has to be heated with a special heating system before use and it may contain relatively high amounts of pollutants, particularly sulfur, which forms sulfur dioxide upon combustion.

1. Carbon captured by oceans and coastal ecosystems
2. Carbon sequestered in forest biomass and agricultural soils
3. Carbon contained in petroleum and natural gas
4. Carbon present in atmosphere

Sea grasses, mangroves, and salt marshes along our coast “capture and hold” carbon, acting as a carbon sink. These coastal systems, though much smaller in size than the planet’s forests, sequester this carbon at a much faster rate, and can continue to do so for millions of years. Most of the carbon taken up by these ecosystems is stored below ground. The carbon found in coastal soil is often thousands of years old!

1. Fern
2. Lichen
3. Moss
4. Mushroom

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1. 1 and 4 only
2. 2 only
3. 2 and 3
4. 1, 3 and 4

Lichens grow on any undisturbed surface–bark, wood, mosses, rock, soil, peat, glass, metal, plastic, and even cloth. Lichens can absorb water through any part of their thalli and have no need of roots. Lichens do not damage plants or rob the bark of moisture.

So 2 is right, and options (a) and (d) are ruled out.

Mosses are non-flowering plants which produce spores and have stems and leaves, but don’t have true roots. Mosses, and their cousins liverworts and hornworts, are classified as Bryophyta (bryophytes) in the plant kingdom.

Mosses may grow on damp soil, tree bark, rocks, concrete, or almost any other reasonably stable surface.

Ferns require indirect sunlight, moist soil, and a humid atmosphere. So (a) and (d) are ruled out. Hence (c) is chosen.

1. Congress grass
2. Elephant grass
3. Lemongrass
4. Nut grass

Parthenium hysterophorus, known as “Congress grass” in India, has spread to more than 40 tropical and subtropical countries, earning its place in the list of the world’s 100 worst invasive species. The alien has invaded almost all Indian states as well, as per estimates, its invasion has resulted in yield losses of up to 40% in several crops in the country and has also caused a 90% drop in forage production.

Elephant grass (Pennisetum purpureum Schumach.) is a major tropical grass. It is one of the highest yielding tropical grasses. It is a very versatile species that can be grown under a wide range of conditions and systems: dry or wet conditions, smallholder or larger scale agriculture.

Lemongrass (Cymbopogon) is a plant, the leaves and the oil of which are used to make medicine. It is used for treating digestive tract spasms, stomachache, high blood pressure, convulsions, pain, vomiting, cough, achy joints (rheumatism), fever, the common cold, and exhaustion. It is also used to kill germs and as a mild astringent. The Lemongrass plant is known to be an excellent mosquito repellant.

Nut grass or Nagarmotha (Cyperus rotundus) is used in the treatment and prevention of many ailments. Rhizomes of the plant are used to treat diarrhea, intestinal parasites, indigestion and bowel disorders.

1. Copepods
2. Cyanobacteria
3. Diatoms
4. Foraminifera

Which of the above are primary producers in the food chains of oceans?

1. 1 and 2
2. 2 and 3
3. 3 and 4
4. 1 and 4

Copepods are major secondary producers in the world ocean. In aquatic environments, cyanobacteria are important primary producers, as said. Diatoms are one of the major primary producers in the ocean, and are photosynthesising algae.

So 2 and 3 are right (cyanobacteria, diatoms). Hence, (a) is wrong, (c) is wrong and (d) is wrong.

Short cut: Once you know either of 2 or 3, or both, things become easy.

1. Hedgehog
2. Marmot
3. Pangolin

To reduce the chance of being captured by predators, which of the above organisms rolls up/roll up and protects/ protect its/their vulnerable parts?

1. 1 and 2
2. 2 only
3. 3 only
4. 1 and 3

Marmot (genus Marmota) are any of 14 species of giant ground squirrels found primarily in North America and Eurasia. These rodents are large and heavy. Upon seeing a predator, the yellow-bellied marmot whistles to warn the others in the area, after which it typically hides in a nearby rock pile until there is no more threat.

If under threat, a pangolin will immediately curl into a tight ball and will use their sharp-scaled tails to defend themselves. So (d) is right.

1. It was first endorsed at the United Nations Climate Summit in 2014.
2. It endorses a global timeline to end the loss of forests.
3. It is a legally binding international declaration.
4. It is endorsed by governments, big companies and indigenous communities. /li>
5. India was one of the signatories at its inception.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1. 1, 2 and 4
2. 1, 3 and 5
3. 3 and 4
4. 2 and 5

The New York Declaration on Forests was endorsed at the 2014 Climate Summit by more than 150 governments, companies, indigenous peoples and civil society organizations committed to doing their part to achieve the Declaration’s ten goals and follow its accompanying action agenda.

Its ten goals include halting natural forest loss by 2030, restoring 350 million hectares of degraded landscapes and forestlands, improving governance, increasing forest finance, and reducing emissions from deforestation and forest degradation as part of a post-2020 global climate agreement.

India is not a signatory. So 5 is wrong, so (b) and (d) are wrong.

Short cut: Knowing all 5 things is not necessary. If you knew any two, it could be solved.

1. Brakes of motor vehicles
2. Engines of motor vehicles
3. Microwave stoves within homes
4. Power plants /li>
5. Telephone lines Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1. 1,2,3 and 5 only
2. 1,2 and 4 only
3. 3,4 and 5 only
4. 1,2,3,4 and 5

Magnetite nanospheres, formed by combustion and/or friction-derived heating, are prolific in urban, airborne particulate matter (PM). As many of the airborne magnetite pollution particles are <200 nm in diameter, they can enter the brain directly through the olfactory nerve and by crossing the damaged olfactory unit. This discovery is important because nanoscale magnetite can respond to external magnetic fields, and is toxic to the brain.

Vehicle brake systems are the major source of airborne magnetite at the roadside. Magnetite concentration is similar in diesel- and petrol-engine exhaust PM. High magnetite content of vehicle brake wear might constitute a risk to human health.

So 1 and 2 are correct, and option (c) is wrong.

There is no reported incidence of magnetite generated from home microwave stoves. So 3 is wrong. So options (a), (c) and (d) are wrong.

1. Catfish
2. Octopus
3. Oyster
4. Pelican

Catfish and Octopus can be ruled out directly, as both are regular eaters. Most catfish are actually bottom feeders.

Pelicans mainly eat fish, but they are opportunistic feeders and eat a variety of aquatic animals including crustaceans, tadpoles and turtles. When food is caught, the pelican manipulates it in its bill until the prey typically has its head pointing down the pelican’s throat.

1. Carbon cycle
2. Nitrogen cycle
3. Phosphorus cycle
4. Sulphur cycle

The carbon cycle describes the process in which carbon atoms continually travel from the atmosphere to the Earth and then back into the atmosphere. Carbon is released back into the atmosphere when organisms die, volcanoes erupt, fires blaze, fossil fuels are burned, and through a variety of other mechanisms. So (a) is wrong.

Nitrogen Cycle is a biogeochemical process through which nitrogen is converted into many forms, consecutively passing from the atmosphere to the soil to organism and back into the atmosphere. There are five stages in the nitrogen cycle: fixation or volatilization, mineralization, nitrification, immobilization, and denitrification. So (b) is wrong.

The phosphorus cycle is the process by which phosphorus moves through the lithosphere, hydrosphere, and biosphere. Phosphorus is essential for plant and animal growth, as well as the health of microbes inhabiting the soil, but is gradually depleted from the soil over time. Much of the phosphorus on Earth is tied up in rock and sedimentary deposits, from which it is released by weathering, leaching, and mining.

The sulfur (sulphur) cycle describes the movement of sulfur through the geosphere and biosphere. Sulfur is released from rocks through weathering, and then assimilated by microbes and plants. It is then passed up the food chain and assimilated by plants and animals, and released when they decompose.

1. Earthworms
2. Jellyfish
3. Millipedes
4. Seahorses
5. Woodlice Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1. 1, 2 and 4 only
2. 2, 3, 4 and 5 only
3. 1, 3 and 5 only
4. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Detritivores are often invertebrate insects such as mites, beetles, butterflies and flies; mollusks such as slugs and snails; or soil-dwelling earthworms, millipedes and woodlice.

Fish, jellyfish (2) and crustaceans are common secondary consumers. Jellyfish feed on phytoplankton and zooplanktons.

Shortcut: Three options have 2 in them, so are rejected.

1. assessing the carbon footprint of building operations around the world
2. enabling commercial farming entities around the world to enter carbon emission trading
3. enabling governments to assess the overall carbon footprint caused by their countries
4. assessing the overall carbon foot-print caused by the use of fossil fuels by the world in a unit time

UNEP said that the purpose of a Common Carbon Metric for buildings was to give the sector that represents 40% of the world’s energy consumption and related 1/3rd of global greenhouse gas (GHG) emissions a tool that doesn’t exist today – a way to measure, report, and verify reductions in a consistent and comparable way

1. Cnidarians
2. Fungi
3. Protozoa

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

The relationship between cnidarians and dinoflagellate algae is termed as “symbiotic”.

(Cnidaria is a phylum under kingdom Animalia containing over 11,000 species of aquatic animals found both in freshwater and marine environments)

Two common mutualistic relationships involving fungi are mycorrhiza and lichen.

Symbiosis in protozoa mostly represents a close mutualistic association between a protozoan and unicellular symbionts (bacteria, cyanobacteria or/and unicellular algae) or protozoans and a multicellular organism (ruminants, lower termites, wood-eating cockroaches, plants)

1. It is a circular temple built during the reign of Kachchhapaghata Dynasty.
2. It is the only circular temple built in India.
3. It was meant to promote the Vaishnava cult in the region.
4. Its design has given rise to a popular belief that it was the inspiration behind the Indian Parliament building.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1 and 2
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 4
4. 2,3 and 4.

India’s Parliament house was inspired by the circular Chausath Yogini Temple.

So, 4 is correct. So, options (a) and (b) are wrong. Since this is not the only circular temple, hence 2 is wrong. Hence (c) is right.

According to an inscription dated to 1323 CE (Vikram Samvat 1383), the temple was built by the Kachchhapaghata king Devapala (r. c. 1055 – 1075). It is said that the temple was the venue of providing education in astrology and mathematics based on the transit of the Sun. It is externally circular in shape with a radius of 170 feet and within its interior part it has 64 small chambers. Within the main central shrine there are slab coverings which have perforations in them to drain rainwater to a large underground storage. The pipe lines from the roof lead the rain water to the storage are also visible.

The cells and the main shrine are flat topped, but it is believed that initially each had a shikhara on top. While the 64 Yoginis originally placed in the 64 subsidiary shrines are now missing, a Shiva linga has taken their places in each cell. The central shrine also holds a Shivalinga.

1. Dholavira
2. Kalibangan
3. Rakhigarhi
4. Ropar

The configuration of the city of Dholavira, during its heyday, is an example of planned city with planned and segregated urban residential areas based on possibly differential occupational activities, and a stratified society. Technological advancements in water harnessing systems, water drainage systems as well architecturally and technologically developed features are reflected in the design, execution, and effective harnessing of local materials.

Unlike other Harappan antecedent towns normally located near to rivers and perennial sources of water, the location of Dholavira in the island of Khadir was strategic to harness different mineral and raw material sources (copper, shell, agate-carnelian, steatite, lead, banded limestone, among others) and to facilitate internal as well as external trade to the Magan (modern Oman peninsula) and Mesopotamian regions.

1. Broach
2. Chicacole
3. Trichinopoly

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1. 1 only
2. 1 and 2
3. 3 only
4. 2 and 3

The English opened their first factory in the South at Masulipatam in 1611. But they soon shifted the center of their activity to Madras the lease of which was granted to them by the local king in 1639.

1. The Guptas of Magadha
2. The Paramaras of Malwa
3. The Pushyabhutis of Thanesar
4. The Maukharis of Kanauj
5. The Yadavas of Devagiri
6. The Maitrakas of Valabhi

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1. 1, 2 and 5
2. 1, 3, 4 and 6
3. 2, 3 and 4
4. 5 and 6

So 1 is correct and 3 is correct. So (a), (c) and (d) are wrong. So (b) is our answer.

Also note that the Yadavas of Deogiri belonged to the Medieval Era. So 5 is wrong. So options (a) and (d) are wrong.

1. Wrestling
2. Astrology
3. Accounting
4. Soothsaying

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1. 1, 2 and 3 only
2. 1, 3 and 4 only
3. 2 and 4 only
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Women occupied a high position and took an active part in the political, social and literary life of the empire. They were educated and trained in wrestling, in the use of various weapons of offence and defence, in music and fine arts. Some women also received an education of high order. Nuniz writes that the kings had women astrologers, clerks, accountants, guards and wrestlers.

Women occupied a respected position in Vijayanagar society. Besides accomplished musicians and dancers, women excelled as astrologers, soothsayers, judges, writers and eminent litterateurs, and many were actively involved in matters of administration and trade.

1. Pingali Venkayya designed the tricolour Indian National Flag here.
2. Pattabhi Sitaramaiah led the Quit India Movement of Andhra region from here.
3. Rabindranath Tagore translated the National Anthem from Bengali to English here.
4. Madame Blavatsky and Colonel Olcott set up headquarters of Theosophical Society first here.

The National Anthem was written as early as in 1911 and was sung at the annual session of the Indian National Congress at Calcutta on 27 December that year. It was actually in Besant Theosophical College, Madanapalle, where Tagore stayed for a few days in February 1919 that the now familiar tune was set. It was Margaret Cousins, wife of educationist Dr. James Henry Cousins, who composed the tune for “Jana Gana Mana”. Dr. J H Cousins was then the Principal of the Madanapalle College that was established by Dr. Annie Besant.

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

1. 1 only
2. 1 and 2
3. 3 only
4. 2 and 3

Around 50 km north-east of Kolkata, near the tiny village of Berachampa in West Bengal, lies the 2,300-year-old site of Chandraketugarh, filled with the most amazing terracotta sculptures.

Archaeologist Rakhaldas Banerji, who discovered the ruins of Mohenjodaro, visited Chandraketugarh and found a vast crop of terracotta artefacts. So 2 is also right, and (d) is our answer.

This question can be solved even if you don’t know about 1.

1. It was during the reign of Iltutmish that Chengiz Khan reached the Indus in pursuit of the fugitive Khwarezm prince.
2. It was during the reign of Muhammad bin Tughluq that Taimur occupied Multan and crossed the Indus.
3. It was during the reign of Deva Raya II of Vijayanagara Empire that Vasco da Gama reached the coast of Kerala.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 1 and 2
3. 3 only
4. 2 and 3

The Battle of Delhi: In 1398 the Mongol-Turkish warrior Timur, ruler of Central Asia from his capital at Samarkand, found a reason to strike south, into India. A devout Muslim, Timur alleged that his co-religionist Sultan Nasiruddin Mahmud (not Tugluq) of Delhi was being too lenient toward his Hindu subjects. So, 2 is wrong. So answer is (a).

1. St. Francis Xavier was one of the founding members of the Jesuit Order.
2. St. Francis Xavier died in Goa and a church is dedicated to him there.
3. The Feast of St. Francis Xavier is celebrated in Goa each year.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Francis Xavier came to Goa, the centre of Portuguese activity in the East, on May 6, 1542. Much of the next three years he spent on the southeastern coast of India among the simple, poor pearl fishers, the Paravas. Francis travelled tirelessly from village to village instructing and confirming them in their faith. His evident goodness and the force of his conviction overcame difficulties of verbal communication.

He had come to realize that the way to the conversion of Japan lay through China; it was to the Chinese that the Japanese looked for wisdom. He never reached China, however. On December 3, 1552, Francis died of fever on the island of Sancian (Shangchuan, off the Chinese coast) as he attempted to secure entrance to the country, then closed to foreigners. So 2 is wrong, hence options (a), (b) and (d) are wrong.

Shortcut: If you know that 2 is wrong, the answer is directly found in (c).

1. Mitakshara was the civil law for upper castes and Dayabhaga was the civil law for lower castes.
2. In the Mitakshara system, the sons can claim right to the property during the lifetime of the father, whereas in the Dayabhaga system, it is only after the death of the father that the sons can claim right to the property.
3. The Mitakshara system deals with the matters related to the property held by male members only of a family, whereas the Dayabhaga system deals with the matters related to the property held by female members of a family.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. 1 and 2
2. 2 only
3. 1 and 3
4. 3 only

Mitakshara law school – A joint family refers only to the male member of a family and extends to include his son, grandson and great-grandson. They collectively have co-ownership/Coparcenary in the Joint Family. Thus, a son by birth acquires an interest in the ancestral property of the joint family.

Dayabhaga law school – The son has no automatic ownership right by birth but acquires it on the demise of his father. Hence, 2 is surely correct. Hence, options (c) and (d) are wrong.

In the Mitakshara system the wife cannot demand partition. She, however, has the right to a share in any partition effected between her husband and her sons. Under the Dayabhaga this right does not exist for the women because the sons cannot demand partition as the father is the absolute owner. In both the systems, in any partition among the sons, the mother is entitled to a share equal to that of a son. Similarly, when a son dies before partition leaving the mother as his heir, the mother is entitled to a share of her deceased son as well as share in her own right when there is a partition between the remaining sons.

1. Jain monks
2. playwrights
3. temple architects
4. philosophers

His plays are considered the equal of the works of Kalidasa. Bhavabhuti seems to have been the court poet of King Yashovarman of Kanauj and known to have been in the entourage of the king who had fought with Lalitaditya Muktapada, the king of Kashmir and had got defeated by him

Hastimalla was a 13th century Kannada poets and writers in Hoysala Empire. He wrote the Purvapurana.

Kshemeshvara (990 – c. 1070 CE) was an 11th-century Sanskrit poet from Kashmir in India.

Shortcut: If you knew the profession of any one of these three, the question is solved.

1. The Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms of 1919 recommended granting voting rights to all the women above the age of 21
2. The Government of India Act of 1935 gave women reserved seats in legislature.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Between 1919 and 1929, all of the British Provinces, as well as most of the Princely states granted women the right to vote and, in some cases, allowed them to stand in local elections.

The report from the three Round Tables was sent to the Joint Committee of the British Parliament recommending lowering the voting age to 21, but retaining property and literacy restrictions, as well as basing women’s eligibility on their marital status. It also provided special quotas for women and ethnic groups in provincial legislatures. These provisions were incorporated into the Government of India Act 1935. Though it extended electoral eligibility, the Act still allowed only 2.5% of the women in India to vote. So 2 is right. So option (b) is our answer.

1. The Quit India Resolution was adopted’ by the AICC.
2. The Viceroy’s Executive Council was expanded to include more Indians.
3. The Congress ministries resigned in seven provinces.
4. Cripps proposed an Indian Union with full Dominion Status once the Second World War was over.

On August 8, 1942, the Quit India Resolution was passed at the Bombay session of the All India Congress Committee (AICC). In his Quit India speech, that day at Gowalia Tank, Bombay, and Gandhi told Indians to follow non-violent civil disobedience. He told the masses to act as an independent nation.

1. Bal Gangadhar Tilak
2. Jawaharlal Nehru
3. Mohandas Karamchand Gandhi
4. Sarojini Naidu

1. Paragana—Sarkar—Suba
2. Sarkar—Paragana—Suba
3. Suba—Sarkar—Paragana
4. Paragana—Suba—Sarkar

A Subah was the term for a province (State) in the Mughal Empire. The governor/ruler of a Subah was known as a subahdar. The subahs were established by emperor Akbar during his administrative reforms of years 1572–1580.

The full Suba was divided into Sarkars (districts), each being looked after by a military officer called the chief Shiqdar. Each Sarkar was divided into smaller units called Parganas. There was a Shiqdar (military officer), Amin or Munsif (Civilian Judge), one Fotahdar (treasurer) and two Karkuns (clerks or writers) in each Pargana.

1. Annie Besant
2. Debendranath Tagore
3. Ishwar Chandra
4. Vidyasagar Sarojini Naidu

Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar (1820 – 1891) was the most prominent campaigner for Hindu widow remarriage, petitioning the Legislative council despite severe opposition, and Lord Dalhousie personally finalised the bill and the Hindu Widows’ Remarriage Act, 1856 was passed.

1. leaders of Swadeshi and Boycott Movement
2. members of the Interim Government in 1946
3. members of the Drafting Committee in the Constituent Assembly
4. officers of the Indian National Army

Between November 1945 and May 1946, approximately ten courts-martial were held in public at the Red Fort in Delhi. These were called the Red Fort trials, and were a big mistake of the British Raj.

Claude Auchinleck, the Commander-in-Chief of the British-Indian army, hoped that by holding public trials in the Red Fort, public opinion would turn against the INA.

The first and most celebrated joint courts-martial – those of Prem Sahgal, Gurubaksh Singh Dhillon and Shah Nawaz Khan turned out against the Britishers’ expectations. These were officers of the INA, led by Netaji Subhash Bose.

1. The Nizamat of Arcot emerged out of Hyderabad State.
2. The Mysore Kingdom emerged out of Vijayanagara Empire.
3. Rohilkhand Kingdom was formed out of the territories occupied by Ahmad Shah Durrani.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1. 1 and 2
2. 2 only
3. 2 and 3
4. 3 only

The Nawabs of the Carnatic (Arcot) ruled the Carnatic region of South India between about 1690 and 1855. It was a dependency of Hyderabad Deccan. This was the time the Mughal Empire gave way to the rising influence of the Maratha Empire, and later the emergence of the British Raj. So 1 is right, so (a) is our answer.

1. Ajanta Caves lie in the gorge of Waghora river.
2. Sanchi Stupa lies in the gorge of Chambal river.
3. Pendulant Cave Shrines lie in the gorge of Narmada river.
4. Amaravati Stupa lies in the gorge of Godavari river.

The Sanchi historic site, west-central Madhya Pradesh state, central India, lies in an upland plateau region, just west of the Betwa River and about 8 km southwest of Vidisha.

The Buddhist monuments Pandavleni Caves also known by the names Pandu Lena caves and Trirashmi caves are a group of 24 rock cut caves. It is close to Nashik city in Maharashtra.

The Britishers were alerted to the ruins of the Stupa at Amaravati after a visit in 1797 by Major Colin Mackenzie. It was on the right bank of the Krishna River in the Andhra district of southeast India.

1. 21st February is declared to be the International Mother Language Day by UNICEF.
2. The demand that Bangla has to be one of the national languages was raised in the Constituent Assembly of Pakistan.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Pakistan’s Constituent Assembly first convened on August 11, 1947, on the eve of independence and the end of British rule.

In 1948, the then Government of Pakistan declared Urdu to be the sole national language of Pakistan, even though Bengali or Bangla was spoken by the majority of people combining East Pakistan and West Pakistan. The East Pakistan people protested, and demanded that Bangla to be at least one of the national languages, in addition to Urdu. The demand was raised by Dhirendranath Datta from East Pakistan on 23 February 1948, in the constituent Assembly of Pakistan. So, 2 is also correct.

1. Permaculture farming discourages monocultural practices but in conventional chemical farming, monoculture practices are pre-dominant.
2. Conventional chemical farming can cause increase in soil salinity but the occurrence of such phenomenon is not observed in permaculture farming.
3. Conventional chemical farming is easily possible in semi-arid regions but permaculture farming is not so easily possible in such regions.
4. Practice of mulching is very important in permaculture farming but not necessarily so in conventional chemical farming.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1. 1 and 3
2. 1, 2 and 4
3. 4 only
4. 2 and 3

Permaculture is an approach to land management that adopts arrangements observed in flourishing natural ecosystems. Principles of permaculture discourage monoculture, it opens up the opportunity for growing a wide variety of grains, fruits and vegetables, and widens one’s food basket. Hence statement 1 is true. Only possible options are (a) and (b).

It is proven that the use of pesticides and fertilizers in conventional chemical farming increases the salinity of the soil, but the principles of Permaculture prohibit use of such practices. So statement 2 is also true. Hence, (b) is our answer.

1. The palm oil tree is native to Southeast Asia.
2. The palm oil is a raw material for some industries producing lipstick and perfumes.
3. The palm oil can be used to produce biodiesel.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and, 3

Palm oil is derived from the oil palm tree (Elaeis guineensis Jacq.), native to West Africa and grows best in tropical climates with abundant water.

Three-quarters of total palm oil produced is used for food, particularly cooking oil and processed oils and fats.

Statement 1 is wrong, so only possible option is (b).

1. Chenab
2. Jhelum
3. Ravi
4. Sutlej

Evident that Chenab is the direct tributary of Indus.

Sutlej, Ravi and Jhelum flows into Chenab before meeting Indus.

1. glaciers
2. mangrove areas
3. Ramsar sites
4. saline lakes

Didwana Lake

Kuchaman Lake – It is a continental saline lake located around Kuchaman city, Nagaur District, Rajasthan. It is 8.5 sq kms in area and is bound by 380 m contour line.

Sargol and Khatu are also saline lakes.

1. Brahmani
2. Nagavali
3. Subarnarekha
4. Vamsadhara

Which of the above rise from the Eastern Ghats?

1. 1 and 2
2. 2 and 4
3. 3 and 4
4. 1 and 3

The Eastern Ghats are the source area for many small and medium rivers of the east coastal plains of South India.

Rivers originating on the Eastern Ghats include – Baitarani River, Budhabalanga River, Rushikulya River, Vamsadhara River, Palar River, Nagavali River, Champavathi River, Gosthani River, Sarada River, Sabari River, Sileru River, Tammileru Gundlakamma River, Pennai Yaru River, Swarnamukhi, Kundu River, Vellar River, Penna River.

The Brahmani river is a major seasonal river in Odisha, formed by the confluence of the Sankh and South Koel rivers. Together with the river Baitarani, it forms a large delta before emptying into the Bay of Bengal at Dhamra.

1. The Global Ocean Commission grants licences for seabed exploration and mining in international waters.
2. India has received licences for seabed mineral exploration in international waters.
3. ‘Rare earth minerals’ are present on seafloor in international waters.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

(The Global Ocean Commission was a body that existed for a few years since 2013)

In 2017, India’s exclusive rights to explore polymetallic nodules from seabed in Central Indian Ocean Basin (CIOB) have been extended by five years. Vast reserves of vital rare earth minerals are found in ocean bed. So statement 2 and 3 are correct.

1. Sugarcane
2. Sunflower
3. Pearl millet
4. Red gram

Millets are astonishingly low water consuming crops. The rainfall needed for Sorghum, Pearl Millet and Finger Millet is less than 25% of sugarcane and banana, and 30% that of rice.

Sunflower requires far less water than Millets and Sugarcane.

For Red Gram, no irrigation is required during monsoon, but in case of drought or long dry spell during the reproductive period of growth, supplementary/life-saving irrigations should be given. A total of just 20-25 cm of water is sufficient to raise a good crop.

1. In the tropical zone, the western sections of the oceans are warmer than the eastern sections owing to the influence of trade winds.
2. In the temperate zone, westerlies make the eastern sections of oceans warmer than the western sections.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

The influence of the trade winds on weather and climate is seen with El Niño, La Niña, and the development of hurricanes/cyclones. The differences in pressure and temperature between the two sides of the Pacific are caused by the trade winds; air blowing from east to west pushes water, making the sea level higher in the western Pacific, and makes cold water rise toward the surface, making the eastern Pacific approximately 14 degrees F (7.7 degrees C) cooler than the western Pacific.

So statement 1 is correct.

In the mid-latitudes, the gyre circulations move poleward along the eastern coasts of continents (the western edges of the ocean), bringing warm water. The water off the east coasts of these places is thus warmer than one expects for that latitude. The return flow on the eastern edges of ocean basins (west coast of continents) brings cold water from poleward of that latitude. This analysis applies to the mid-latitudes only. There are opposite gyres closer to the poles that make the east coasts much colder than expected. (Compare the Alaska current to the Labrador, which is off the east coast of Canada.)

So statement 2 is correct.

1. The ‘Climate-Smart Village’ approach in India is a part of a project led by the Climate Change, Agriculture and Food Security (CCAFS), an international research programme.
2. The project of CCAFS is carried out under Consultative Group on International Agricultural Research (CGIAR) headquartered in France.
3. The International Crops Research Institute for the Semi-Arid Tropics (ICRISAT) in India is one of the CGIAR’s research centres.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

ICRISAT, a CGIAR Research Center, is a non-profit, non-political public international research organization that conducts agricultural research for development in Asia and sub-Saharan Africa with a wide array of partners throughout the world, headquartered in Patancheru (Telangana), India with several regional centers.

Hence all the three statements are correct.

1. coniferous forest
2. dry deciduous forest
3. mangrove forest
4. tropical rain forest

The tropical rainforest is a hot, moist biome where it rains all year long. It is known for its dense canopies of vegetation that form three different layers. The top layer or canopy contains giant trees that grow to heights of 75 m (about 250 ft) or more. This layer of vegetation prevents much of the sunlight from reaching the ground. Thick, woody vines are also found in the canopy. They climb trees in the canopy to reach for sunlight. The middle layer, or understory, is made up of vines, smaller trees, ferns, and palms.

The hot, humid climate leads to rapid chemical weathering of the bedrock. In addition to this the climate provides ideal conditions for the rapid decomposition of leaf litter. However, the soils are fragile and depend upon the rapid decomposition of leaf litter for nutrients. The rapid decomposition leads to a thin humus layer. If vegetation is removed nutrients are quickly leached and the soil rapidly loses fertility.

1. Burrowing animals and termites
2. Fire
3. Grazing herbivores
4. Seasonal rainfall
5. Soil properties

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1. 1 and 2
2. 4 and 5
3. 2, 3 and 4
4. 1, 3 and 5

The tree component of savannas generally becomes more important as rainfall increases, but other factors such as topography, soil, and grazing intensity all exert influences in complex and variable ways. Dry-season fires, fueled by dried grass, may kill some trees, especially the more-vulnerable young saplings, and, therefore, their severity also greatly affects the nature of savanna vegetation. So “fire” is correct, and 2 must be in the answer.

So options (b) and (d) are gone.

Clearly 3 and 4 are important.

Savannas get very little rain – about 4 inches (100 mm) of rain – in the dry season, and they will often not get any rainfall at all for many months. This is a long time for plants to go without water. But the wet season gets lots of rain.

(An unusually large proportion of dead organic matter—approximately 30 percent—is decomposed through the feeding activities of termites. Thus, a significant proportion of released mineral nutrients may be stored for long periods in termite mounds where they are not readily available to plant roots. In savannas in Thailand it has been shown that soil fertility can be markedly improved by mechanically breaking up termite mounds and spreading the material across the soil surface. In Kenya, old termite mounds, which are raised above the general soil surface, also provide flood-proof sites where trees and shrubs can grow, with grassland between them, forming the so-called termite savanna.)

1. The amount of water in the rivers and lakes is more than the amount of groundwater.
2. The amount of water in polar ice caps and glaciers is more than the amount of groundwater.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

1. Moringa (drumstick tree) is a leguminous evergreen tree.
2. Tamarind tree is endemic to South Asia.
3. In India, most of the tamarind is collected as minor forest produce.
4. India exports tamarind and seeds of moringa.
5. Seeds of moringa and tamarind can be used in the production of biofuels.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1, 2, 4 and 5
2. 3, 4 and 5
3. 1, 3 and 4
4. 1, 2, 3 and 5

(Crops which have nodules in their roots which contain nitrogen fixing bacteria are called leguminous crops.)

If 1 is not correct, then only (b) can be our answer!

Tamarind, (Tamarindus indica), evergreen tree of the pea family (Fabaceae), native to tropical Africa. So statement 2 is also incorrect.

1. brown forest soil
2. fissure volcanic rock
3. granite and schist
4. shale and limestone

Black soils are derivatives of trap lava and are spread mostly across interior Gujarat, Maharashtra, Karnataka, and Madhya Pradesh on the Deccan lava plateau and the Malwa Plateau, where there is both moderate rainfall and underlying basaltic rock.

Black soil is a result of weathering of igneous basaltic rocks, a type of extrusive rock. Black soil is generally found in the Deccan trap, formed 66 million years ago. It is generally 2000 meters in depth.

1. Genetic engineering is applied in the development of these vaccines.
2. Bacteria and viruses are used as vectors.

Which of the statements is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Though Recombinant Vector Vaccines are primarily developed using virus, they can also be developed using bacteria also. Hence 2 is also correct.

1. Passing on mitochondrial diseases from parent to child can be prevented by mitochondrial replacement therapy either before or after in vitro fertilization of egg.
2. A child inherits mitochondrial diseases entirely from mother and not from father.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Primary mitochondrial disease is a genetic condition that can be inherited (passed from parents to their children) in several ways. Under normal circumstances, a child inherits genes in pairs — one gene from the mother and one from the father. A child with a mitochondrial disease does NOT receive a normal pair of genes from the parents (but mutated ones).

Inheritance types are many – (i) Autosomal recessive inheritance: This child receives one mutated copy of a gene from each parent. There is a 25% chance that each child in the family will inherit a mitochondrial disease; (ii) Autosomal dominant inheritance: This child receives one mutated copy of a gene from either parent. There is a 50% chance that each child in the family will inherit a mitochondrial disease; (iii) Mitochondrial inheritance: In this unique type of inheritance, the mitochondria contain their own DNA. Only mitochondrial disorders caused by mutations in the mitochondrial DNA are exclusively inherited from mothers. If this is the way a mitochondrial disease was inherited, there is a 100% chance that each child in the family will inherit a mitochondrial disease; and (iv) Random mutations: Sometimes genes develop a mutation of their own that is not inherited from a parent.

Thus it is only in “Mitochondrial inheritance” that disease comes from mother and not father. So 2 is not right. So (b) and (c) are ruled out.

MRT is possible after and before in vitro fertilization.

Pronuclear transfer technique (PTT) – It is a significant approach of MRT administered after fertilization, in which two zygotes are raised in vitro. One of the zygotes belongs to the biological parents with pronuclei and defective mitochondria and the other one to the donor with pronuclei and healthy mitochondria

Maternal spindle transfer (MST) technique – The technique, executed before fertilization is a form of selective reproduction similar to prenatal diagnosis and pre-implantation genetic diagnosis (PGD).

So 1 is right and (a) is the answer.

1. clonal propagation of crop plants
2. developing genetically modified crop plants
3. production of plant growth substances
4. production of biofertilizers

Bollgard II contains the Cry 2 Ab gene, in addition to Cry 1 Ac. The Bollgard II event developed by Mahyco-Monsanto Biotech Ltd, (MMBL) is technically designated as MON 15985.

1. Area of the hole in the lid
2. Temperature of the flame
3. Weight of the lid

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

The simple logic of pressure cooking is that if you raise the pressure in an enclosed space, then the boiling point of liquid contained in that space will also rise. Water has a boiling point of 100° C at 1 atmosphere. If pressure rises, water’s boiling point rises too. It carries more heat, and cook things faster.

A pressure cooker has a modified lid that locks on over a rubber gasket to create a seal. The cooker works by raising the temperature of boiling water. To use a pressure cooker, we put the food in the pot with some liquid. Once the lid is locked in place and the cooker is set on high heat, steam develops in the pot and can’t escape. The trapped steam increases the atmospheric pressure inside the cooker above normal sea-level pressure. At that pressure, the boiling point of water is increased. This higher temperature is what cooks food faster. Once the cooker has reached full pressure, usually indicated by a gauge or pop-up rod on the lid, a release valve opens, letting out steam in a regulated flow to maintain a constant temperature inside the pot.

More will be the weight of the lid, more pressure and temperature the cooker can sustain. The area of the hole in the lid should be appropriate; if it is larger then proper pressure and temperature will not be maintained.

But the temperature of the flame will not matter, as it will decide the “time” taken to cook the food, nothing else. A higher temperature will cook the food faster, and vice versa. It will not affect the pressure inside the cooker because even a low temperature flame, given sufficient time, will build the needed pressure anyway.

1. Bacteria
2. Fungi
3. Virus

Which of the above can be cultured in artificial/ synthetic medium?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

1. Adenoviruses have single-stranded DNA genomes whereas retroviruses have double-stranded DNA genomes.
2. Common cold is sometime caused by an adenovirus whereas AIDS is caused by a retrovirus. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

An adenovirus is considered as the largest among the non-enveloped viruses. This term indicates that the virus has no protective protein-coating, called capsids, to wrap the genetic information stored inside the virus. This virus contains a double-stranded DNA. It has been proven that this virus is the cause for about 10% of upper respiratory infections in children and adults. Adenoviruses are common viruses that cause a range of illness. They can cause cold-like symptoms, fever, sore throat, bronchitis, pneumonia, diarrhea, and pink eye (conjunctivitis).

A retrovirus, on the other hand, is an example of an enveloped virus. In this case, it has a protective protein coat that makes it more resilient and has a higher tendency to cause diseases. It is considered as an RNA virus and can integrate itself to its host cells, thus, causing damage to the cell. The disease AIDS is caused by a retrovirus named HIV.

So, statement 1 is incorrect and statement 2 is correct.

1. it is dipolar in nature
2. it is a good conductor of heat
3. it has high value of specific heat
4. it is an oxide of hydrogen

Water molecules have a polar arrangement of oxygen and hydrogen atoms—one side (hydrogen) has a positive electrical charge and the other side (oxygen) had a negative charge.

This phenomenon is called the dipolar nature of the water molecule.

This allows the water molecule to become attracted to many other different types of molecules.

1. Sodium lamps produce light in 360 degrees but it is not so in the case of LED lamps.
2. As street-lights, sodium lamps have longer life span than LED lamps.
3. The spectrum of visible light from sodium lamps is almost monochromatic while LED lamps offer significant colour advantages in street-lighting.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1. 3 only
2. 2 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1,2 and 3

LED lamps as street light has longest lifespan compared with other street light types (50,000 to 100,000 hours). Hence statement 2 is not true. Answer is option (c).

Color Rendering Index (CRI) – CRI is how the light source reflects the color of an object, showing its aesthetics and form. Criteria for Street Lights – 75 to 100: Excellent; 65 to 75: Good; 55 to 65: Fair; 0 to 55: Poor. LED street lights have CRI of 65 to 95 while Sodium lamps have CRI of 20 to 30 (almost monochromatic). Hence statement 3 is correct.

1. genes introduced in the genetically modified plants
2. development of India’s own satellite navigation system
3. radio collars for wildlife tracking
4. spread of viral diseases

The ACE2 is a protein on the surface of many cell types. It is an enzyme that generates small proteins – by cutting up the larger protein angiotensinogen – that then go on to regulate functions in the cell. Using the spike-like protein on its surface, the SARS-CoV-2 virus binds to ACE2 – like a key being inserted into a lock – prior to entry and infection of cells. Hence, ACE2 acts as a cellular doorway – a receptor – for the virus that causes COVID-19.

1. Low-density polyethylene
2. Polycarbonate
3. Polyethylene terephthalate
4. Polyvinyl chloride

Exposure to BPA is a concern because of the possible health effects on the brain and prostate gland of fetuses, infants and children. It can also affect children’s behaviour. Research suggests a possible link between BPA and increased blood pressure, type 2 diabetes and cardiovascular disease.

1. Food preservatives
2. Fruit-ripening substances
3. Reused plastic containers
4. Toiletries

Some animal studies have shown that exposure to high doses of triclosan is associated with a decrease in the levels of some thyroid hormones. There are other ongoing studies that involve the safety of triclosan. One is a study investigating the potential of developing skin cancer after a long-term exposure to triclosan in animals.

1. Distances among stellar bodies do not change.
2. Gravity of stellar bodies does not change
3. Light always travels in straight line.
4. Speed of light is always same.

A light-year is how astronomers measure distance in space. It’s defined by how far a beam of light travels in one year – a distance of six trillion miles.

Reasons to measure astronomical distances in light year are – (a) Speed of light is constant, and (b) It is large enough for such lengths and is even concise.

Measuring in light-years also allows astronomers to determine how far back in time they are viewing. Because light takes time to travel to our eyes, everything we view in the night sky has already happened. In other words, when you observe something 1 light-year away, you see it as it appeared exactly one year ago.

1. As regards legislation, the British Parliament is supreme or sovereign but in India, the power of the Parliament to legislate is limited.
2. In India, matters related to the constitutionality of the Amendment of an Act of the Parliament are referred to the Constitution Bench by the Supreme Court.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

1. India has a republican system in place of British monarchical system
2. The British system is based on the doctrine of the sovereignty of Parliament, while the Parliament is not supreme in India and enjoys limited and restricted powers due to a written Constitution, federal system, judicial review and fundamental rights.

Hence statement 1 is true.

Now, a Constitution Bench is a bench of the Supreme Court having five or more judges on it. These are not a routine phenomenon. A vast majority of cases before the Supreme Court are heard and decided by a bench of two judges (called a Division Bench), and sometimes of three. Constitution Benches are exceptions, set up only if one or more of the following circumstances exist:

1. The case involves a substantial question of law pertaining to the interpretation of the Constitution;
2. The President of India has sought the Supreme Court’s opinion on a question of fact or law under Article 143 of the Constitution;
3. Two or more three-judge benches of the Supreme Court have delivered conflicting judgments on the same point of law, thus warranting a definitive pronouncement by a larger bench;
4. A later three-judge bench doubts the correctness of a judgment delivered by a previous three-judge bench of the Supreme Court, and decides to refer the case to a larger bench for a reconsideration of that earlier judgment.

So statement 2 is true whenever it happens (but in UK, it cannot happen at all).

Hence answer is (c).

1. N. Gopalaswamy lyengar Committee suggested that a minister and a secretary be designated solely for pursuing the subject of administrative reform and promoting it.
2. In 1970, the Department of Personnel was constituted on the recommendation of the Administrative Reforms Commission, 1966, and this was placed under the Prime Minister’s charge.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

So statement 1 is incorrect.

On 07th February, 1973, the work relating to Department of Administrative Reforms was transferred to Department of Personnel created under Cabinet Secretariat on 01st August, 1970 and was re-designated as Department of Personnel and Administrative Reforms.

So statement 2 is not correct.

Hence both statements 1 and 2 are not correct.

1. Article 15
2. Article 19
3. Article 21
4. Article 29

Article 21 of Constitution of India: Protection of Life and Personal Liberty. Article 21 states that “No person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to a procedure established by law.” Thus, article 21 secures two rights: Right to life, and Right to personal liberty.

Article 15 of the Constitution of India forbids discrimination on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth. So option (a) is not correct.

Article 19 of the Constitution provides freedom of speech which is the right to express one’s opinion freely without any fear through oral/written/electronic/broadcasting/press.

Article 29 of the Indian Constitution is related with Protection of interests of minorities.

1. In India, there is no law restricting the candidates from contesting in one Lok Sabha election from three constituencies.
2. In 1991 Lok Sabha Election, Shri Devi Lal contested from three Lok Sabha constituencies.
3. As per the existing rules, if a candidate contests in one Lok Sabha election from many constituencies, his/her party should bear the cost of bye-elections to the constituencies vacated by him/her in the event of him/her winning in all the constituencies.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. 1 and 3
4. 2 and 3

As per Section 33(7) of the RPA, one candidate can contest from a maximum of two constituencies (more constituencies were allowed until 1996 when the RPA was amended to set the cap at two constituencies).

So, statement 1 is incorrect. Answer could be option (b) or (d).

The Election Commission recommended amending Section 33(7) so as to allow one candidate to contest from only one seat. It did so in 2004, 2010, 2016 and again in 2018. These were recommendations given to the Executive and the Supreme Court. (If not an amendment, the EC opined that a system should be devised wherein if a candidate contested from two constituencies and won both, then he or she would bear the financial burden of conducting the subsequent by-election in one of the constituencies. The amount would be Rs 5 lakh for a Vidhan Sabha election and Rs 10 lakh for a Lok Sabha election.)

So, statement 3 is not correct.

So answer should be (b). [but we were not able to confirm which 3 seats did Mr Devi Lal contest from, in the 1991 LS elections]

1. ‘Right to the City’ is an agreed human right and the UN-Habitat monitors the commitments made by each country in this regard.
2. ‘Right to the City’ gives every occupant of the city the right to reclaim public spaces and public participation in the city.
3. ‘Right to the City’ means that the State cannot deny any public service or facility to the unauthorized colonies in the city.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 3 only
3. 1 and 2
4. 2 and 3

The Right to the City is the right of all inhabitants, present and future, permanent and temporary, to inhabit, use, occupy, produce, govern and enjoy just, inclusive, safe and sustainable cities, villages and human settlements, defined as commons essential to a full and decent life.

So statement 2 is correct. So options (a) and (b) are ruled out.

The Right to the City is a collective right that highlights the territorial integrality and interdependence of all internationally recognized civil, political, economic, social, cultural and environmental rights, as regulated in international human rights treaties, bringing them the territorial dimension and a focus on adequate life standards.

So statement 1 seems right.

Hence answer is (c).

1. Judicial custody means an accused is in the custody of the concerned magistrate and such accused is locked up in police station, not in jail.
2. During judicial custody, the police officer in charge of the case is not allowed to interrogate the suspect without the approval of the court.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Police Custody (PC) means that police has the physical custody of the accused while Judicial Custody (JC) means an accused is in the custody of the concerned Magistrate.

In former, the accused is lodged in police station lockup while in latter, it is the jail.

During Judicial Custody, the police officer in charge of the case is not allowed to interrogate the suspect. However, the court may allow the interrogations to be conducted if it opines the interrogation being necessary under the facts produced before the court.

Hence only statement 2 is correct.

1. When a prisoner makes out a sufficient case, parole cannot be denied to such prisoner because it becomes a matter of his/her right.
2. State Governments have their own Prisoners Release on Parole Rules.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

The power to grant Parole is essentially the function of the executive and to consider the request made by the prisoner for his release on parole is the prerogative of the executive only.

Rules have been framed in every State regulating the grant of parole. Hence statement 2 is true.

Every prisoner before his entitlement for his release on parole has to meet certain eligibility criteria.

Further in the following cases, parole would ordinarily be not granted except, if in the discretion of the competent authority special circumstances exist for grant of parole;

1. If the prisoner is convicted of murder after rape;
2. If the prisoner is convicted for murder and rape of children;
3. If prisoner is convicted for multiple murders.

Hence statement 1 is not true.

1. Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
2. Ministry of Panchayati Raj
3. Ministry of Rural Development
4. Ministry of Tribal Affairs

It is explicitly mentioned in the Chapter VI of the act is that “Nodal agency – The Ministry of the Central Government dealing with Tribal Affairs or any officer or authority authorised by the Central Government in this behalf shall be the nodal agency for the implementation of the provisions of this Act”.

1. Article 14
2. Article 28
3. Article 32
4. Article 44

Article 14 which at the root of arbitrariness and Article 21 guarantees right to life and liberty which is the fundamental provision to protect liberty and ensure life with dignity. It bars discrimination and prohibits both discriminatory laws and administrative action.

Article 22 guarantees natural justice and provision of fair hearing to the arrested person.

Article 28 deals with Freedom as to attendance at religious instruction or religious worship in certain educational institutions.

Article 32 deals with the ‘Right to Constitutional Remedies’, or affirms the right to move the Supreme Court by appropriate proceedings for the enforcement of the rights conferred in Part III of the Constitution.

Article 44 of Indian Constitution is related with Uniform Civil Code.

1. The independence of judiciary is safeguarded.
2. The Union Legislature has elected representatives from constituent units.
3. The Union Cabinet can elected representatives regional parties.
4. The Fundamental Rights are enforceable by Courts of Law.

In a federal constitution, there is a division of power between the states and the central government and both are independent in their own spheres.

Indian Constitution is neither purely federal nor purely integral. It is a harmonious mixture of both.

Key features of federalism can be listed as

1. There are two or more levels (or tiers) of government
2. Different tiers of government govern the same citizens, but each tier has its own jurisdiction in specific matters of legislation, taxation and administration.
3. The jurisdictions of the respective levels or tiers of government are specified in the constitution. So the existence and authority of each tier of government is constitutionally guaranteed.
4. The fundamental provisions of the constitution cannot be unilaterally changed by one level of government. Such changes require the consent of both the levels of government.
5. Courts have the power to interpret the constitution and the powers of different levels of government. The highest court acts as an umpire if disputes arise between different levels of government in the exercise of their respective powers.
6. The most important feature of the federal system adopted by the Indian Constitution is the principle that relations between the States and the centre would be based on cooperation. For this, an independent Judiciary is a must.

Hence, Option (a) is correct.

1. A community of persons permanently occupying a definite territory independent of external control and possessing an organized government
2. A politically organized people of a definite territory and possessing an authority to govern them, maintain law and order, protect their natural rights and safeguard their means of sustenance
3. A number of persons who have been living in a definite territory for a very long time with their own culture, tradition and government
4. A society permanently living in a definite territory with a central authority, an executive responsible to the central authority and an independent judiciary

Some of the definitions of the concept of State are as follows:

“The State is the politically organized people of a definite territory” – Bluntschli

State is “a community of persons, more or less numerous, permanently occupying a definite portion of territory, independent, or nearly so, of external control, and possessing an organized government to which the great body of inhabitants render habitual obedience.” – Garner

State is “a territorial society divided into governments and subjects, whether individuals or associations of individuals, whose relationships are determined by the exercise of this supreme coercive power.” – Laski

State “is a people organized for law within a definite territory”. –Woodrow Wilson

“The State is a concept of political science, and a moral reality which exists where a number of people, living on a definite territory, are unified under a government which in internal matters is the organ of expressing their sovereignty, and in external matters is independent of other governments.” – Gilchrist

A ”state” is such that it alone has the prerogative of making laws. The lawmaking power derives from sovereignty, which is the most distinctive characteristic of the State.

Only option (a) suits the definitions.

1. Any retired judge of the Supreme Court of India can be called back to sit and act as a Supreme Court judge by the Chief Justice of India with prior permission of the President of India.
2. A High Court in India has the power to review its own judgement as the Supreme Court does.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Statement 2 is correct: Being “A Court Of Record”, a High Court can review its own judgments under Article 226 Of the Constitution. The Kerala High Court has iterated the legal proposition that High Courts as Courts of Record could review their own orders. A Division Bench of Chief Justice S Manikumar and Shaji P Chaly were confronted with an appeal against a review petition.

1. There is only one citizenship and one domicile.
2. A citizen by birth only can become the Head of State.
3. A foreigner once granted the citizenship cannot be deprived of it under any circumstances.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. 1 and 3
4. 2 and 3

ARTICLE 5: CITIZENSHIP AT THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE CONSTITUTION

At the commencement of this Constitution, every person who has his domicile in the territory of India and –

1. who was born in the territory of India; or
2. either of whose parents was born in the territory of India; or
3. who has been ordinarily resident in the territory of India for not less than five years immediately preceding such commencement, shall be a citizen of India.

ARTICLE 9: PERSONS VOLUNTARILY ACQUIRING CITIZENSHIP OF A FOREIGN STATE NOT TO BE CITIZENS

No person shall be a citizen of India by virtue of article 5 or be deemed to be a citizen of India by virtue of article 6 or article 8 if he has voluntarily acquired the citizenship of any foreign State.

Hence, statement 1 is correct.

ARTICLE 10: CONTINUANCE OF THE RIGHTS OF CITIZENSHIP

Every person who is or is deemed to be a citizen of India under any of the foregoing provisions of this Part shall, subject to the provisions of any law that may be made by Parliament, continue to be such citizen.

Deprivation Of Citizenship [Section 10 or Indian Citizenship Act, 1955]

Deprivation is a compulsory termination of citizenship of India. A citizen of India by naturalization, registration, domicile and residence, may be deprived of his citizenship by an order of the Central Government if it is satisfied that:

The citizen has obtained the citizenship by means of fraud, false representation or concealment of any material fact;

The citizen has shown disloyalty to the Constitution of India;

The citizen has unlawfully traded or communicated with the enemy during a war;

The citizen has, within five years after registration or neutralization, been imprisoned in any country for two years;

The citizen has been ordinarily resident out of India for seven years continuously.

Hence, Statement 3 is not correct.

Article 58 of the constitution sets the principal qualifications one must meet to be eligible to the office of the president. A president must be: a citizen of India, be of 35 years of age or above. There is no written provision explaining that Indian Citizen of foreign origin as president.

Hence, Statement 2 is not correct.

1. A committed judiciary
2. Centralization of powers
3. Elected government
4. Separation of powers

This enhances the rule of law as one of the basic foundations of democracy; it affirms the separation of powers as a vehicle for their restraint, and it promotes individuals’ rights and freedoms as a prerequisite for their dignity.

A “committed judiciary” is a derogatory word that means committed to the-then prevailing government. Hence (a) is wrong. Option (b) clearly is wrong.

1. the Right to Equality
2. the Directive Principles of State Policy
3. the Right to Freedom
4. the Concept of Welfare

Articles 39: The State shall in particular, direct its policies towards securing:

Right to an adequate means of livelihood to all the citizens.

The ownership and control of material resources shall be organised in a manner to serve the common good.

The State shall avoid concentration of wealth in a few hands.

Equal pay for equal work for both men and women.

The protection of the strength and health of the workers.

Childhood and youth shall not be exploited.

1. Legal right available to citizens only
2. Legal right available to any person
3. Fundamental Right available to citizens only
4. Neither Fundamental Right nor legal right

The Constitution originally provided for the ‘right to property’ under Articles 19 and 31 (fundamental right). Article 19 guaranteed to all citizens the right to acquire, hold and dispose of property. Article 31 provided that “no person shall be deprived of his property save by authority of law.” It also provided that compensation would be paid to a person whose property has been taken for public purposes.

The provisions relating to the right to property were changed a number of times. The 44th Amendment of 1978 removed the right to property from the list of fundamental rights. A new provision, Article 300-A, was added to the constitution, which provided that “no person shall be deprived of his property save by authority of law”.

Regarding foreigners and Indian citizens: A foreign national of non-Indian origin resident outside India cannot buy any immovable property in India. It is illegal for foreign nationals to own property in India unless they satisfy the residency requirement of 183 days in a financial year (a tourist visa lasts for 180 days). It is also illegal to buy property on a tourist visa.

Property cannot be purchased jointly in the name of one eligible person with one non-eligible person. That means a non-resident Indian (NRI) or foreign national of Indian origin (PIO) cannot buy a property jointly with a foreigner. However, a foreign national resident in India does not require approval of RBI to purchase any immovable property in India. This is because once he is a resident in India, he gets the rights like any other resident. This freedom is however not available to citizens of Pakistan, Bangladesh, Sri Lanka, Afghanistan, China, Iran, Nepal and Bhutan.

1. A Democratic Republic
2. A Sovereign Democratic Republic
3. A Sovereign Secular Democratic
4. A Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic

1. a representative government of a nation with federal structure
2. a government whose Head enjoys nominal powers
3. a government whose Head enjoys real powers
4. a government limited by the terms of the Constitution

Representative democracy, also known as indirect democracy, is a type of democracy founded on the principle of elected persons representing a group of people, in contrast to direct democracy.

A federal republic is a federation of states with a republican form of government.

Hence only option (d) is true.

1. dance forms of Northwest India
2. musical instruments
3. pre-historic cave paintings
4. tribal languages

Halbi is an Eastern Indo-Aryan language, transitional between Odia and Marathi. It is spoken by 500,000 people across the central part of India.

Ho is a Munda language of the Austroasiatic language family spoken primarily in India by about 1.04 million people (0.103% of India’s population) per the 2001 census. It is spoken by the Ho, Munda, Kolha and Kol tribal communities of Odisha, Jharkhand, Bihar, Chhattisgarh, West Bengal, Assam and is written with the Warang Citi script.

Kui is a South-Eastern Dravidian language spoken by the Kandhas. It is mostly spoken in Odisha, and written in the Odia script.

1. Bharat Ratna and Pad.-na Awards are titles under the Article 18(1) of the Constitution of India.
2. Padma Awards, which were instituted in the year 1954, were suspended only once.
3. The number of Bharat Ratna Awards is restricted to a maximum of five in a particular year.

Which of the above statements are not correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1,2 and 3

1. ‘Bharat Ratna’, the highest civilian Award of the country, was instituted in the year 1954.
2. Any person without distinction of race, occupation, position or sex is eligible for these awards.
3. It is awarded in recognition of exceptional service/performance of the highest order in any field of human endeavour.
4. The recommendations for Bharat Ratna are made by the Prime Minister himself to the President. No formal recommendations for this are necessary.
5. The number of annual awards is restricted to a maximum of three in a particular year.
6. On conferment of the award, the recipient receives a Sanad (certificate) signed by the President and a medallion.
7. The Award does not carry any monetary grant.

Padma Awards –

1. The Padma Awards are one of the highest civilian honours of India announced annually on the eve of Republic Day.
2. The Awards are given in three categories: Padma Vibhushan (for exceptional and distinguished service), Padma Bhushan (distinguished service of higher order) and Padma Shri (distinguished service).
3. The award seeks to recognize achievements in all fields of activities or disciplines where an element of public service is involved.
4. The Padma Awards are conferred on the recommendations made by the Padma Awards Committee, which is constituted by the Prime Minister every year. The nomination process is open to the public. Even self-nomination can be made.
5. Padma Awards, which were instituted in the year 1954, is announced every year on the occasion of Republic Day except for brief interruption(s) during the years 1978 and 1979 and 1993 to 1997.

Article 18(1) of Indian Constitution abolishes all titles. It prohibits the State to confer titles on anybody whether a citizen or a non-citizen. Military and academic distinctions are, however, exempted from the prohibition. Thus, a university can give title or honor on a man of merit.

Hence statements 1, 2, and 3 are NOT correct.

Statement 1 :

The United Nations Capital Development Fund (UNCDF) and the Arbor Day Foundation have recently recognized Hyderabad as 2020 Tree City of the World.

Statement 2 :

Hyderabad was selected for the recognition for a year following its commitment to grow and maintain the urban forests.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

1. Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct and Statement 2 is the correct explanation for Statement 1
2. Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct but Statement 2 is not the correct explanation for Statement 1
3. Statement 1 is correct but Statement 2 is not correct
4. Statement 1 is not correct but Statement 2 is correct

Hyderabad was selected as a Tree City because of its initiatives like Haritha Haram programme and Urban Forest Parks plan. Haritha Haram is a flagship program of the state government for large-scale plantations across the state to increase the green cover. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

1. American golfer Tiger Woods was the first winner of this award.
2. The award was received mostly by `Formula One’ players so far.
3. Roger Federer received this award maximum number of times compared to others.

Which of the above statements are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

The first ceremony was held on 25 May 2000 in Monte Carlo in which American golfer Tiger Woods was the (first) winner of the award.

Swiss tennis player Roger Federer holds the record for the most awards with six, five for Sportsman of the Year and one for Comeback of the Year.

Of the total 21 times for which the award has been awarded yet the ‘Formula One’ players have won it only for four times i.e., in 2020 – Lewis Hamilton, 2014- Sebastian Vettel and 2002 and 2004 – Michael Schumacher.

Hence only statements 1 and 3 are true

1. The official motto for this Olympics is ‘A New World’.
2. Sport Climbing, Surfing, Skateboarding, Karate and Baseball are included in this Olympics.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

There has been a total of 42 sports, spanning 55 disciplines, included in the Olympic programme at one point or another in the history of the Games. For 32nd Summer Olympics the schedule has comprised 33 sports, spanning 50 disciplines.

In 2016 Summer Olympics held at Rio de Janeiro (Brazil), there were 28 sports (41 disciplines). The disciplines added in 2020 Summer Olympics by the Japanese Olympic Committee were baseball and softball, karate, sport climbing, surfing and skateboarding, the last four of which made their Olympic debuts, and the last three of which will remain on the Olympic program.

Hence only statement 2 is true.

1. The finalists were decided by the number of matches they won.
2. New Zealand was ranked ahead of England because it won more matches than England.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

For every test match contested in the 2021-23 cycle, in the ICC World Test Championship points system, twelve points will be awarded to the winning team, four points awarded for a draw and six for a tied game. The percentage of points won is used to determine the WTC standings.

Hence both 1 and 2 are not correct.