UPSC Prelims-2022 – General Studies 1 Analysis + Explanation

1. Database created by coalition of research organisations
2. Wing of “International Panel of Climate Change”
3. Committee under “United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change”
4. Agency promoted and financed by United Nations Environment Programme and World Bank

1. “The Climate Group” is an international non-profit organization that drives climate action by building large networks and runs them.
2. The International Energy Agency in partnership with the Climate Group launched a global initiative “EPIOO”.
3. EP100 brings together leading companies committed to driving innovation in energy efficiency and increasing competitiveness while delivering on emission reduction goals.
4. Some Indian companies are members of EP100.
5. The International Energy Agency is the Secretariat to the “Under2 Coalition”.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1, 2, 4 and 5
2. 1, 3 and 4 only
3. 2, 3 and 5 only
4. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

1. The water cycle in wetlands involves ‘ surface runoff, subsoil percolation and evaporation.
2. Algae form the nutrient base upon which fish, crustaceans, molluscs, birds, reptiles and mammals thrive.
3. Wetlands play a vital role in maintaining sedimentation balance and soil stabilization.
4. Aquatic plants absorb heavy metals and excess nutrients.

1. The 24-hour mean of PM2.5 should not exceed 15 µg/m3 and annual mean of PM2.5 should not exceed 5 fig/m3.
2. In a year, the highest levels of ozone pollution occur during the periods of inclement weather.
3. PM10 can penetrate the lung barrier and enter the bloodstream.
4. Excessive ozone in the air can trigger asthma.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1, 3 and 4
2. 1 and 4 only
3. 2, 3 and 4
4. 1 and 2 only

1. It is a fungus.
2. It grows in some Himalayan forest areas.
3. It is commercially cultivated in the Himalayan foothills of north-eastern India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. only
2. 3 only
3. 1 and 2
4. 2 and 3

1. Its fibres can be blended with wool and cotton fibres to reinforce their properties.
2. Containers made of it can be used to store any alcoholic beverage.
3. Bottles made of it can be recycled into other products.
4. Articles made of it can be easily disposed of by incineration without causing greenhouse gas emissions.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1 and 3
2. 2 and 4
3. 1 and 4
4. 2 and 3

1. Golden Mahseer
2. Indian Nightjar
3. Spoonbill
4. White Ibis

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1 and 3
2. 2 and 4
3. 1 and 4
4. 2 and 3

1. Alfalfa
2. Amaranth
3. Chickpea
4. Clover
5. Purslane (Kulfa)
6. Spinach

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. 1, 3 and 4 only
2. 1, 3, 5 and 6 only
3. 2, 4, 5 and 6 only
4. 1, 2, 4, 5 and 6

1. Restoration of damaged coral reefs
2. Development of building materials using plant residues
3. Identification of areas for exploration/extraction of shale gas
4. Providing salt licks for wild animals in forests/protected areas

1. Promotion of commercial farming in arid and semi-arid areas
2. Development of gardens using genetically modified flora
3. Creation of mini forests in urban areas
4. Harvesting wind energy on coastal areas and on sea surfaces

1. Aarogya Setu
2. CoWIN
3. DigiLocker
4. DIKSHA

Which of the above are built on top of open-source digital platforms?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2, 3 and 4 only
3. 1, 3 and 4 only
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

1. Web 3-0 technology enables people to control their own data.
2. In Web 3-0 world, there can be block chain based social networks.
3. Web 3-0 is operated by users collectively rather than a corporation.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Decentralization: “No permission is needed from a central authority to post anything on the web, there is no central controlling node, and so no single point of failure…and no ‘kill switch’! This also implies freedom from indiscriminate censorship and surveillance.” This is a core tenet of Web 3.0. In Web 2.0, computers use HTTP in the form of unique web addresses to find information, which is stored at a fixed location, generally on a single server. With Web 3.0, because information would be found based on its content, it could be stored in multiple locations simultaneously and hence be decentralized. This would break down the massive databases currently held by internet giants like Meta and Google and would hand greater control to users. Hence 3 is true.

Bottom-up design: “Instead of code being written and controlled by a small group of experts, it was developed in full view of everyone, encouraging maximum participation and experimentation.”

With Web 3.0, the data generated by disparate and increasingly powerful computing resources, including mobile phones, desktops, appliances, vehicles, and sensors, will be sold by users through decentralized data networks, ensuring that users retain ownership control. Hence 1 is true.

Trustless and permissionless: In addition to decentralization and being based upon open-source software, Web 3.0 will also be trustless (i.e., the network will allow participants to interact directly without going through a trusted intermediary) and permissionless (meaning that anyone can participate without authorization from a governing body). As a result, Web 3.0 applications will run on blockchains or decentralized peer-to-peer networks, or a combination thereof—such decentralized apps are referred to as dApps.

1. SaaS buyers can customise the user interface and can change data fields.
2. SaaS users can access their data through their mobile devices.
3. Outlook, Hotmail and Yahoo! Mail are forms of SaaS.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

1. A hypersonic missile is launched into space to counter the asteroid approaching the Earth and explode it in space.
2. A spacecraft lands on another planet after making several orbital motions.
3. A missile is put into a stable orbit around the Earth and deorbits over a target on the Earth.
4. A spacecraft moves along a comet with the same speed and places a probe on its surface.

1. Cloud Services
2. Quantum Computing
3. Visible Light Communication Technologies
4. Wireless Communication Technologies

1. Closed-circuit Television
2. Radio Frequency Identification
3. Wireless Local Area Network

Which of the above are considered Short-Range devices/technologies?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

CCTV (closed-circuit television) is a TV system in which signals are not publicly distributed but are monitored, primarily for surveillance and security purposes. CCTV relies on strategic placement of cameras and private observation of the camera’s input on monitors.

Radio Frequency Identification (RFID) is a technology that uses radio waves to passively identify a tagged object. It is used in several commercial and industrial applications, from tracking items along a supply chain to keeping track of items checked out of a library.

A wireless LAN is a wireless computer network that links two or more devices using wireless communication to form a local area network within a limited area such as a home, school, computer laboratory, campus, or office building.

1. Biofilms can form on medical implants within human tissues
2. Biofilms can form on food and food processing surfaces.
3. Biofilms can exhibit antibiotic resistance.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

1. Probiotics are made of both bacteria and yeast.
2. The organisms in probiotics are found in foods we ingest but they do not naturally occur in our gut.
3. Probiotics help in the digestion of milk sugars.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. 1 and 3
4. 2 and 3

1. The Serum Institute of India produced COVID-19 vaccine named Covishield using mRNA platform.
2. Sputnik V vaccine is manufactured using vector based platform.
3. COVAXIN is an inactivated pathogen based vaccine.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

1. GPS and navigation systems could fail.
2. Tsunamis could occur at equatorial regions.
3. Power grids could be damaged,
4. Intense auroras could occur over much of the Earth.
5. Forest fires could take place over much of tile planet.
6. Orbits of the satellites could be disturbed.
7. Shortwave radio communication of the aircraft flying over Polar Regions could be interrupted.

Select the correct answer using the code given below;

1. 1, 2, 4 and 5 only
2. 2, 3, 5, 6 and 7 only
3. 1, 3, 4, 6 and 7 only
4. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7

1. Pursuant to the report of H.N. Sanyal Committee, the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971 was passed.
2. The Constitution of India empowers the Supreme Court and the High Courts to punish for contempt of themselves.
3. The Constitution of India defines Civil Contempt and Criminal Contempt.
4. In India, the Parliament is vested with the powers to make laws on Contempt of Court.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 1, 2 and 4
3. 3 and 4 only
4. 3 only

Focus on statement 3. It is wrong, as these two types were defined by the 1971 Act and not the Constitution. So (a) or (b) may be our answer.

Final answer is (a).

1. Government law officers and legal firms are recognised as advocates, but corporate lawyers and patent attorneys are excluded from recognition as advocates.
2. Bar Councils have the power to lay down the rules relating to legal education and recognition of law colleges.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

The Bar Council of India visits and inspects Universities/Law colleges in the country as part of its statutory function of promoting legal education and laying down standards in consultation with the Universities in India and the State Bar Councils.

So 1 is not correct and 2 is correct.

1. A bill amending the Constitution requires a prior recommendation of the President of India.
2. When a Constitution Amendment Bill is presented to the President of India, it is obligatory for the President of India to give his/her assent.
3. A Constitution Amendment .Bill must be passed by both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha by a special majority and there is no provision for joint sitting.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

1. An amendment of the Constitution can be initiated only by the introduction of a bill for the purpose in either House of Parliament (Lok Sabha & Rajya Sabha) and not in the state legislatures.
2. The bill can be introduced either by a minister or by a private member and does not require prior permission of the president.
3. The bill must be passed in each House by a special majority, that is, a majority (that is, more than 50 per cent) of the total membership of the House and a majority of two-thirds of the members of the House present and voting.
4. Each House must pass the bill separately.
5. In case of a disagreement between the two Houses, there is no provision for holding a joint sitting of the two Houses for the purpose of deliberation and passage of the bill.
6. If the bill seeks to amend the federal provisions of the Constitution, it must also be ratified by the legislatures of half of the states by a simple majority, that is, a majority of the members of the House present and voting.
7. After duly passed by both the Houses of Parliament and ratified by the state legislatures, where necessary, the bill is presented to the president for assent.
8. The president must give his assent to the bill. He can neither withhold his assent to the bill nor return the bill for reconsideration of the Parliament.
9. After the president’s assent, the bill becomes an Act (i.e., a constitutional amendment act) and the Constitution stands amended in accordance with the terms of the Act.

Now note that since statement 1 is wrong, three options are ruled out.

1. The Constitution of India classifies the ministers into four ranks viz. Cabinet Minister, Minister of State with Independent Charge, Minister of State and Deputy Minister.
2. The total number of ministers in the Union Government, including the Prime Minister, shall not exceed 15 percent of the total number of members in the Lok Sabha.
3. A Constitution Amendment .Bill must be passed by both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha by a special majority and there is no provision for joint sitting.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

1. To ratify the declaration of Emergency
2. To pass a motion of no-confidence against the Council of Ministers
3. To impeach the President of India

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. 1 and 2
2. 2 only
3. 1 and 3
4. 3 only

1. Motions of no confidence against the government can be introduced and passed in the Lok Sabha, but not in the Rajya Sabha. This is the most crucial difference, as the Council of Ministers is responsible to the Lok Sabha.
2. Money bills can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha
3. The budget is presented in the Lok Sabha by the Finance Minister in the name of the President of India.
4. In matters about non-financial (ordinary) bills, after the bill has been passed by the House where it was originally tabled (Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha), it is sent to the other house, where it may be kept for a maximum period of 6 months.
5. Equal Powers with the Rajya Sabha in initiating and passing any Bill for Constitutional Amendment (by a majority of the total membership of the House and at least two-thirds majority of the members present and voting).
6. Equal Powers with the Rajya Sabha in initiating and passing a motion for the impeachment of the President (by two-thirds of the membership of the House).
7. Equal Powers with the Rajya Sabha in the impeachment process (initiating and passing a motion for the removal) of the judges of the Supreme Court and the state High Courts (by a majority of the membership of the House and at least two-thirds majority of the members present and voting), who then can be removed by the President of India.
8. Equal Powers with the Rajya Sabha in initiating and passing a resolution declaring war or national emergency (by two-thirds majority) or constitutional emergency (by simple majority) in a state.
9. If the Lok Sabha is dissolved before or after the declaration of a National Emergency, the Rajya Sabha becomes the sole Parliament. It cannot be dissolved. This is a limitation on the Lok Sabha.

1. The law specifies that a nominated legislator cannot join any political party within six months of being appointed to the House.
2. The law does not provide any time-frame within which the presiding officer has to decide a defection case.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Grounds of disqualification

1. If an elected member voluntarily gives up his membership of a political party.
2. If he votes or abstains from voting in such House contrary to any direction issued by his political party or anyone authorised to do so, without obtaining prior permission.
3. As a pre-condition for his disqualification, his abstention from voting should not be condoned by his party or the authorised person within 15 days of such incident.
4. If any independently elected member joins any political party.
5. If any nominated member joins any political party after the expiry of six months

However, the law does not provide a time-frame within which the presiding officer has to decide a defection case.

1. Attorney General of India and Solicitor General of India are the only officers of the Government who are allowed to participate in the meetings of the Parliament of India.
2. According to the Constitution of India, the Attorney General of India submits his resignation when the Government which appointed him resigns,

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

President of India appoints a person who is qualified for the post of Supreme Court Judge. Attorney General is appointed by the President on the advice of the government. There are the following qualifications – He should be an Indian Citizen; He must have either completed 5 years in High Court of any Indian state as a judge or 10 years in High Court as an advocate; He may be an eminent jurist too, in the eye of the President.

There is no fixed term for the Attorney General of India. The Constitution mentions no specified tenure of Attorney General. Similarly, the Constitution also does not mention the procedure and ground of his removal.

He can be removed by the President at any time. He can quit by submitting his resignation only to the President. Since he is appointed by the President on the advice of the Council of Ministers, conventionally he is removed (by President) when the council is dissolved or replaced.

Attorney General of India can attend the meetings of both houses of parliament while not being a member of either.

The Solicitor General of India is subordinate to the Attorney General for India. He is the second law officer of the country, and assists the Attorney General, and is assisted by Additional Solicitors General for India. They can not attend the meetings of parliaments. So, both statements are not true.

1. Mandamus will not lie against a private organisation unless it is entrusted with a public duty.
2. Mandamus will not lie against a Company even though it may be a Government Company.
3. Any public minded person can be a petitioner to move the Court to obtain the writ of Quo Warranto.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

It cannot be issued in the following circumstances – The duty in question is discretionary and not mandatory. For the performance of a non-statutory function. Performance of the duty involves rights of purely private nature. Where such direction involves violation of any law.

Under Article 226 of the Constitution, a Writ of Mandamus can be issued even against a private authority in respect of the public functions being discharged by the said authority. A writ court can by its decision direct a private authority to correct or enforce discharge of public functions. So, 1 is correct.

About issuing mandamus to government companies, the law seems to be in a state of confusion! A few High Courts have thought that the writ could apply even to a government company, but few others have held that the writ may not be issued to a statutory corporation like Life Insurance Corporation. The position in relation to the above bodies is examined seriatim (a Latin word meaning consecutively).

The writ of Quo Warranto is issued by the courts against a private person when he assumes an office on which he has no right. Quo Warranto literally means ‘by what authority’ and it is an effective measure to prevent people from taking over public offices. A citizen can claim a writ of quo warranto and he stands in the position of a relater. He need not have any special interest or personal interest.

1. Private and public hospitals must adopt it.
2. As it aims to achieve universal health coverage, every citizen of India should be part of it ultimately.
3. It has seamless portability across the country.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

The other major component of the programme is creating a Healthcare Professionals’ Registry (HPR) and Healthcare Facilities Registry (HFR), allowing easy electronic access to medical professionals and health infrastructure. The HPR will be a comprehensive repository of all healthcare professionals involved in delivering healthcare services across both modern and traditional systems of medicine. The HFR database will have records of all the country’s health facilities. (public and private)

Participation in ABDM is voluntary including for citizens. Participation of a healthcare facility or an institution is also voluntary and shall be taken by the respective management (government or private management). However, once the management decides to register the respective healthcare facility/institution in ABDM, it is essential for all the healthcare professionals serving the said facility/institution to register in Healthcare Professionals Registry so that the institution can become fully integrated with the National Digital Health Ecosystem (NDHE).

So, 1 is not correct, only possible option is (b).

1. As per the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha, the election of Deputy Speaker shall be held on such date as the Speaker may fix.
2. There is a mandatory provision that the election of a candidate as Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha shall be from either the principal opposition party or the ruling party.
3. The Deputy Speaker has the same power as of the Speaker when presiding over the sitting of the House and no appeal lies against his rulings.
4. The well established parliamentary practice regarding the appointment of Deputy Speaker is that the motion is moved by the Speaker and duly seconded by the Prime Minister.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1 and 3 only
2. 1, 2 and 3
3. 3 and 4 only
4. 2 and 4 only

The Deputy Speaker is also elected by the Lok Sabha from amongst its members right after the election of the Speaker has taken place. The date of election of the Deputy Speaker is fixed by the Speaker (date of election of the Speaker is fixed by the President). So, 1 is correct.

The Deputy Speaker performs the duties of the Speaker’s office when it is vacant. He/She also acts as the Speaker when the latter is absent from the sitting of the House. He/She also presides over the joint sitting of both the Houses of Parliament, in case the Speaker is absent from such a sitting. The Deputy Speaker has one special privilege, that is, whenever he/she is appointed as a member of a parliamentary committee, he/she automatically becomes its chairman. So, 3 is correct.

1 and 3 are correct – so only possible option is (a).

1. Asian Development Bank
2. International Monetary Fund
3. United Nations Environment Programme Finance Initiative
4. World Bank

Rapid Credit Facility (RCF) – It provides rapid concessional financial assistance to low-income countries (LICs) facing an urgent balance of payments (BoP) need with no ex post conditionality where a full-fledged economic program is neither necessary nor feasible. The RCF was created under the Poverty Reduction and Growth Trust (PRGT) as part of a broader reform to make the Fund’s financial support more flexible and better tailored to the diverse needs of LICs, including in times of crisis.

1. An increase in Nominal Effective Exchange Rate (NEER) indicates the appreciation of rupee.
2. An increase in the Real Effective Exchange Rate (REER) indicates an improvement in trade competitiveness.
3. An increasing trend in domestic inflation relative to inflation in other countries is likely to cause an increasing divergence between NEER and REER.

Which of the above statements are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

An increase in REER implies that exports become more expensive and imports become cheaper; therefore, an increase indicates a loss in trade competitiveness. So, statement 2 is incorrect.

The NEER is the weighted geometric average of the bilateral nominal exchange rates of the home currency in terms of foreign currencies. The REER is the weighted average of NEER adjusted by the ratio of domestic price to foreign prices. Increasing trend in domestic inflation relative to inflation in other countries creates a divergence in NEER and REER. So, 3 is correct.

This was a very tough question, and could have been avoided unless studied thoroughly earlier.

1. If the inflation is too high. Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is likely to buy government securities.
2. If the rupee is rapidly depreciating, RBI is likely to sell dollars in the market.
3. If interest rates in the USA or European Union were to fall, that is likely to induce RBI to buy dollars.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Now – “Rupee depreciation” means a decrease in value of Rupee with respect to Dollar. In a free floating exchange rate regime, depreciation takes place when the demand for Dollar is more than the supply. RBI is likely to sell dollars in the market, if rupee rapidly depreciates, to increase the supply of the dollar (and stop the rapid depreciation). So, statement 2 is correct.

When the interest rates in US and EU fall, there will be an inflow of dollars from the Indian market (an effect of “cheap money abroad”), leading to appreciation of the rupee. That will hurt Indian exporters and IT firms (and also NRIs abroad!). To reduce the supply of dollars in the economy, RBI will likely buy dollars from the market. So, statement 3 is also correct.

1. It is an initiative endorsed by the “G20 together with the Paris Club.
2. It is an initiative to support Low Income Countries with unsustainable debt.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

1. Government can reduce the coupon rates on its borrowing by way of IIBs.
2. IIBs provide protection to the investors from uncertainty regarding inflation.
3. The interest received as well as capital gains on IIBs are not taxable.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

1. They can sell their own goods in addition to offering their platforms as market-places.
2. The degree to which they can own big sellers on their platforms is limited.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

India recently tightened the foreign direct investment (FDI) rules for ecommerce to check companies set up by the online marketplaces from trading on their own platform. The rules barred online marketplaces from holding inventory of their own or influencing the price of goods on their platforms. They also prohibited group companies or entities in which marketplaces have control of inventory to sell on their platforms, among other things. (many of these rules have existed for many years)

Under the FDI Policy in India, the Equity/FDI cap on e-commerce activities is set at 100% through the automatic route. However, e-commerce startups and entities should engage only in the Business to Business (B2B) e-commerce and not in the Business to Consumer (B2C) e-commerce. (doing that would actually make no sense for firms like Flipkart or Amazon!)

The FDI Policy allows 100% FDI under the automatic route for the marketplace model of e-commerce activities. However, FDI is not permitted for the inventory-based model of e-commerce activities.

The marketplace-based model of e-commerce means providing an information technology platform by an e-commerce startup or entity on a digital and electronic network, acting as a facilitator between the buyer and the seller.

The inventory-based model of e-commerce means e-commerce activities where the inventory of goods and services is owned by an e-commerce startup or entity and is sold to the consumers directly.

So, statement 1 is not correct, but 2 is correct.

1. Farmers harvesting their crops
2. Textile mills converting raw cotton into fabrics
3. A commercial bank lending money to a trading company
4. A corporate body issuing Rupee Denominated Bonds overseas

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2, 3 and 4 only
3. 1, 3 and 4 only
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

1. An Indian company investing in a foreign enterprise and paying taxes to the foreign country on the profits arising out of its investment
2. A foreign company investing in India and paying taxes to the country of its base on the profits arising out of its investment
3. An Indian company purchases tangible assets in a foreign country and sells such assets after their value increases and transfers the proceeds to India
4. A foreign company transfers shares and such shares derive their substantial value from assets located in India

1. Acquiring new technology is capital expenditure.
2. Debt financing is considered capital expenditure, while equity financing is considered revenue expenditure.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Revenue expenditure is one that neither creates assets nor reduces any liability of the government. Salaries of employees, interest payment on past debt, subsidies, pension, etc. fall under the category of revenue expenditure. It is recurring in nature. So equity financing cannot be Revenue Expenditure.

So, only 1 is correct.

1. A share of the household financial savings goes towards government borrowings.
2. Dated securities issued at market-related rates in. auctions form a large component of internal debt.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

1. Cotton
2. Rice
3. Sugarcane
4. Wheat

1. Reduced seed requirement
2. Reduced methane production
3. Reduced electricity consumption

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Under SRI, the process starts with young seedlings planted singly at wider spacing in a square pattern; and with intermittent irrigation that keeps the soil moist but not inundated, and frequent inter cultivation with weeder that actively. As less irrigation is required, it results in reduced electricity consumption. So, all the three statements are correct.

1. Lake Victoria
2. Lake Faguibine
3. Lake Oguta
4. Lake Volta

1. Cauvery
2. Manjira
3. Pennar
4. Tungabhadra

Which of the pairs given above Ware correctly matched?

1. 1 and 2
2. 2 only
3. 1 and 3
4. 3 only

1. Region along the eastern Mediterranean shores
2. Region along North African shores stretching from Egypt to Morocco
3. Region along Persian Gulf and Horn of Africa
4. The entire coastal areas of Mediterranean Sea

1. Azerbaijan
2. Kyrgyzstan
3. Tajikistan
4. Turkmenistan
5. Uzbekistan

Which of the above have borders with Afghanistan?

1. 1, 2 and 5 only
2. 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
3. 3, 4 and 6 only
4. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

1. Monazite is a source of rare earths.
2. Monazite contains thorium.
3. Monazite occurs naturally in the entire Indian coastal sands in India.
4. In India, Government bodies only can process or export monazite.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1, 2 and 3 only
2. 1, 2 and 4 only
3. 3 and 4 only
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

1. First half of the month of June
2. Second half of the month of June
3. First half of the month of July
4. Second half of the month of July

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

1. Only one pair
2. Only two pairs
3. Only three pairs
4. All four pairs

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

1. Only one pair
2. Only two pairs
3. Only three pairs
4. All four pairs

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

1. Only one pair
2. Only two pairs
3. Only three pairs
4. All four pairs

Jayashakti and Vijayashakti (c. 865−885 CE) Vakpati’s sons Jayashakti (Jeja) and Vijayashakti (Vija) consolidated the Chandella power. According to a Mahoba inscription, the Chandella territory was named “Jejakabhukti” after Jayashakti. So, Jayashakti also belonged to Chandela Dynasty.

Nagabhatta II (c. 800–833 CE): Nagabhatta II was succeeded by his son Ramabhadra, who ruled briefly, and was succeeded by his son Mihira Bhoja. Nagabhatta II belongs to Pratihara Dynasty.

Bhoja I / Mihir Bhoja (c.836−885 CE): Grandson of Nagabhatta II, who had a long reign of over 46 years and proved to be the most successful and popular ruler of Pratiharas. So pair 2 and 4 are not correct.

You were expected to remember the names of all major emperors in major historical dynasties of India. A tough one.

1. Sangam poems are devoid of any reference to material culture.
2. The social classification of Varna was known to Sangam poets.
3. Sangam poems have no reference to warrior ethic
4. Sangam literature refers to magical forces as irrational.

1. Akbar
2. Humayun
3. Shahjahan
4. Aurangzeb

1. The best means of salvation was devotion.
2. Vedas are eternal, self-existent and wholly authoritative.
3. Logical arguments were essential means for the highest bliss.
4. Salvation was to be obtained through meditation.

1. Somnath Temple is one of the Jyotirlinga shrines.
2. A description of Somnath Temple was given by Al-Biruni.
3. Pran Pratishtha of Somnath Temple (installation of the present day temple) was done by President S. Radhakrishnan.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

The medieval era polymath Al Biruni described Temple’s destruction: “In January 1026, Somnath Lingam was smashed, after killing many devotees, and the loot amounted to a huge sum”. So, statement 2 is also correct.

The Pran-pratishtha (installation) of present day Somnath Temple was done by then President of India Dr. Rajendra Prasad. So, 3 is not correct.

1. They protect the body from environmental allergens.
2. They alleviate the body’s pain and inflammation.
3. They act as immunosuppressants in the body.
4. They protect the body from the diseases caused by pathogens.

1. Other than those made by humans, nanoparticles do not exist in nature.
2. Nanoparticles of some metallic oxides are used in the manufacture of some cosmetics.
3. Nanoparticles of some commercial products which enter the environment are unsafe for humans.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 3 only
3. 1 and 2
4. 2 and 3

DNA Barcoding can be a tool to:

1. assess the age of a plant or animal.
2. distinguish among species that look alike.
3. identify undesirable animal or plant materials in processed foods.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 3 only
3. 1 and 2
4. 2 and 3

1. Carbon monoxide
2. Nitrogen oxide
3. Ozone
4. Sulphur dioxide

Excess of which of-the above.-in the environment is/are cause(s) of add rain?

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 2 and 4 only
3. 4 only
4. 1, 3 and 4

1. High clouds primarily reflect solar radiation and cool the surface of the Earth.
2. Low clouds have a high absorption of infrared radiation emanating from the Earth’s surface and thus cause warming effect.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

High, thin clouds primarily transmit incoming solar radiation; at the same time, they trap some of the outgoing infrared radiation emitted by the Earth and radiate it back downward, thereby warming the surface of the Earth. Low, thick clouds primarily reflect solar radiation and cool the surface of the Earth. So, both statements are not correct.

1. Bidibidi is a large refugee settlement in north-western Kenya.
2. Some people who fled from South Sudan civil war live in Bidibidi.
3. Some people who fled from civil war in Somalia live in Dadaab refugee complex in Kenya.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2
2. 2 only
3. 2 and 3
4. 3 only

The Dadaab refugee complex has a population of 2,18,873 registered refugees and asylum seekers as at the end of July 2020. Dadaab refugee complex consists of three camps. The first camp was established in 1991, when refugees fleeing the civil war in Somalia started to cross the border into Kenya. A second large influx occurred in 2011, when some 130,000 refugees arrived, fleeing drought and famine in southern Somalia.

1. Armenia
2. Azerbaijan
3. Croatia
4. Romania
5. Uzbekistan

Which of the above are members of the Organization of Turkic States?

1. 1, 2 and 4
2. 1 and 3
3. 2 and 5
4. 3, 4 and 5

1. Gujarat has the largest solar park in India.
2. Kerala has a fully solar powered International Airport.
3. Goa has the largest floating solar photovoltaic project in India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2
2. 2 only
3. 1 and 3
4. 3 only

Only possible option is (b).

1. A coastal state has the right to establish the breadth of its territorial sea up to a limit not exceeding 12 nautical miles, measured from baseline determined in accordance with the convention.
2. Ships of all states, whether coastal or land-locked, enjoy the right of innocent passage through the territorial sea.
3. The Exclusive Economic Zone shall not extend beyond 200 nautical miles from the baseline from which the breadth of the territorial sea is measured.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

1. It is generally believed that they are artificial islands made by a country around South China Sea.
2. China and Japan engage in maritime disputes over these islands in East China Sea.
3. A permanent American military base has been set up there to help Taiwan to increase its defence capabilities.
4. Though International Court of Justice declared them as no man’s land, some South-East Asian countries claim them.

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

1. Only one pair
2. Only two pairs
3. Only three pairs
4. All four pairs

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

1. Only one pair
2. Only two pairs
3. Only three pairs
4. All four pairs

Amharas are a Semitic-speaking ethnic group which is indigenous to Ethiopia, traditionally inhabiting parts of the northwest Highlands of Ethiopia, particularly inhabiting the Amhara Region.

Cabo Delgado is the northernmost province of Mozambique. (not Spain)

Catalonia is an autonomous community of Spain.

So, only two pairs are correctly matched.

1. Wild animals are the sole property of the government.
2. When a wild animal is declared protected, such animal is entitled for equal protection whether it is found in protected areas or outside.
3. Apprehension of a protected wild animal becoming a danger to human life is sufficient ground for its capture or killing.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2
2. 2 only
3. 1 and 3
4. 3 only

THE WILD LIFE (PROTECTION) ACT, 1972 – Prohibition of hunting.—No person shall hunt any wild animal specified in Schedules I, II, III and IV except as provided under section 11 and section 12.

Hunting of wild animals to be permitted in certain cases –

1. Notwithstanding anything contained in any other law for the time being in force and subject to the provisions of Chapter IV –

1. the Chief Wild Life Warden may, if he is satisfied that any wild animal specified in Schedule I has become dangerous to human life or is so disabled or diseased as to be beyond recovery, by order in writing and stating the reasons therefor, permit any person to hunt such animal or cause such animal to be hunted: 1[Provided that no wild animal shall be ordered to be killed unless the Chief Wild Life Warden is satisfied that such animal cannot be captured, tranquilized or translocated: Provided further that no such captured animal shall be kept in captivity unless the Chief Wild Life Warden is satisfied that such animal cannot be rehabilitated in the wild and the reasons for the same are recorded in writing.

Explanation – For the purposes of clause (a), the process of capture or translocation, as the case may be, of such animal shall be made in such manner as to cause minimum trauma to the said animal.]

So, 3 is not correct.

1. Ant
2. Cockroach
3. Crab
4. Spider

1. Tight monetary policy of US Federal Reserve could lead to capital flight.
2. Capital flight may increase the interest cost of firms with existing External Commercial Borrowings (ECBs).
3. Devaluation of domestic currency decreases the currency risk associated with ECBs.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

A depreciation of the domestic currency will lead to an increase in the value of foreign currency debts in domestic currency terms. So, a significant depreciation of the local currency would translate into an increase in the local-currency value of outstanding debt. As a consequence, this would lead to a deterioration of the debt-servicing capacity of domestic borrowers. Note that “External Commercial Borrowing (ECB)” is a type of loan in foreign currencies, made by non-resident lenders.

1. Andhra Pradesh
2. Kerala
3. Himachal Pradesh
4. Tripura

How many of the above are generally known as tea-producing States?

1. Only one State
2. Only two States
3. Only three States
4. All four States

1. In India, credit rating agencies are regulated by Reserve Bank of India.
2. The rating agency popularly known as ICRA is a public limited company.
3. Brickwork Ratings is an Indian credit rating agency.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

1. The Governor of RBI is the Chairman of BBB.
2. BBB recommends for the selection of heads for Public Sector Banks.
3. BBB helps the Public Sector Banks in developing strategies and capital raising plans.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

1. As there is an option to exchange the bond for equity. Convertible Bonds pay a lower rate of interest.
2. The option to convert to equity affords the bondholder a degree of indexation to rising consumer prices.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

The option to convert to equity affords the bondholder a degree of indexation to rising consumer prices. So, both are correct.

1. Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank
2. Missile Technology Control Regime
3. Shanghai Cooperation Organisation

India is a member of which of the above?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 3 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

The SCO (Shanghai Cooperation Organisation) currently comprises eight Member States (China, India, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Russia, Pakistan, Tajikistan and Uzbekistan), four Observer States interested in acceding to full membership (Afghanistan, Belarus, Iran, and Mongolia) and six “Dialogue Partners”. So 1 and 3 are correct. Only possible option is (d).

1. Vietnam has been one of the fastest growing economies in the world in the recent years.
2. Vietnam is led by a multi-party political system.
3. Vietnam’s economic growth is linked to its integration with global supply chains and focus on exports.
4. For a long time Vietnam’s low labour costs and stable exchange rates have attracted global manufacturers.
5. Vietnam has the most productive e-service sector in the Indo-Pacific region.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 2 and 4
2. 3 and 5
3. 1, 3 and 4
4. 1 and 2

Vietnam is unitary, socialist, communist, one-party state. So, 2 is not correct. Only possible option is (c).

1. Department of Consumer Affairs
2. Expenditure Management Commission
3. Financial Stability and Development Council
4. Reserve Bank of India

1. They enable the digital representation of physical assets.
2. They are unique cryptographic tokens that exist on a block chain.
3. They can be traded or exchanged at equivalency and therefore can be used as a medium of commercial transactions.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

How many pairs given above are not correctly matched?

1. Only one pair
2. Only two pairs
3. Only three pairs
4. All four pairs

1. Administration of Justice
2. Local Self-Government
3. Land Revenue
4. Police

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 2, 3 and 4
3. 1, 3 and 4
4. 1, 2 and 4

1. Clothing
2. Coins
3. Ornaments
4. Weapons

1. Barindra Kumar Ghosh
2. Jogesh Chandra Chatterjee
3. Rash Behari Bose

Who of the above was/were actively associated with the Ghadar Party?

1. 1 and 2
2. 2 only
3. 1 and 3
4. 3 only

1. The Constituent Assembly would have members nominated by the Provincial Assemblies as well as the Princely States.
2. Any Province, which is not prepared to accept the new Constitution would have the right to sign a separate agreement with Britain regarding its future status.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

1. Setting up of an Indian dominion. This dominion would have the freedom to remain with the British Commonwealth or to secede from it. It would also be at liberty to take part in international organisations.
2. A Constituent Assembly would be formed to frame a new constitution for the country. This Assembly would have members elected by the provincial assemblies and also nominated by the princes.
3. Any province unwilling to join the Indian dominion could form a separate union and have a separate constitution.
4. The transfer of power and the rights of minorities would be safeguarded by negotiations between the Constituent Assembly and the British government.
5. In the meantime, until this new constitution came into force, India’s defence would be controlled by the British and the powers of the Governor-General would remain unaltered.
6. Any province unwilling to join the Indian dominion could form a separate union and have a separate constitution.

So, both the statements are correct.

1. Nettipakarana
2. Parishishtaparvan
3. Avadanashataka
4. Trishashtilakshana Mahapurana

Which of the above are Jaina texts?

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 2 and 4 only
3. 1, 3 and 4
4. 2, 3 and 4

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

1. None of the pairs
2. Only one pair
3. Only two pairs
4. All three pairs

Dignāga (c. 480 – c. 540 CE) was an Indian Buddhist scholar and one of the Buddhist founders of Indian logic.

Sri Ranganathamuni, popularly known as Sriman Nathamuni (823 CE–951 CE), was a Vaishnava theologian who collected and compiled the Nalayira Divya Prabandham.

Only two pairs are matched.

1. The first Mongol invasion of India happened during the reign of Jalal-ud-din Khalji.
2. During the reign of Ala-ud-din Khalji, one Mongol assault marched up to Delhi and besieged the city.
3. Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq temporarily lost portions of north-west of his kingdom to Mongols.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2
2. 2 only
3. 1 and 3
4. 3 only

1. Arab merchants
2. Qalandars
3. Persian calligraphists
4. Sayyids

1. The Dutch established their factories/warehouses on the east coast on lands granted to them by Gajapati rulers.
2. Alfonso de Albuquerque captured Goa from the Bijapur Sultanate.
3. The English East India Company established a factory at Madras on a plot of land leased from a representative of the Vijayanagara empire.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Alfanso de Albuquerque captured Goa from the Bijapur sultanate king Adil Shahis with the help of Vijaynagara Empire. So, 2 is correct.

The English East India Company established a factory in Madras in 1639 on land leased from representatives of Vijayanagara Empire called the Nayakas. So, 3 is correct.

1. A person could be a slave as a result of a judicial punishment.
2. If a female slave bore her master a son, she was legally free.
3. If a son born to a female slave was fathered by her master, the son was entitled to the legal status of the master’s son-

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

1. Central Statistics Office
2. Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade
3. Labour Bureau
4. National Technical Manpower Information System

1. CCO is the major source of Coal Statistics in Government of India.
2. It monitors progress of development of Captive Coal/Lignite blocks.
3. It hears any objection to the Governments notification relating to acquisition of coal-bearing areas.
4. It ensures that coal mining companies deliver the coal to end users in the prescribed time.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 3 and 4 only
3. 1 and 2 only
4. 1, 2 and 4

Under Coal Bearing Area (Acquisition and Development) Act, 1957– Coal Controller is the competent authority under this act to hear any objection to the Central Government’s Notification relating to acquisition of coal bearing land and to furnish his reports to Central Govt. Under the Coking Coal Mines (Nationalisation) act, 1972, the Non-coking Coal Mines (Nationalisation) Act, 1973 and the Coal Mines (Special Provision) Act, 2015. Coal Controller also functions as the Commissioner of Payment to settle the claim cases of colliery owners of pre-nationalisation period under the above acts.

1. This would prevent the transfer of land of tribal people to non-tribal people.
2. This would create a local self-governing body in that area.
3. This would convert that area into a Union Territory.
4. The State having such areas would be declared a Special Category State.

1. The India Sanitation Coalition is a platform to promote sustainable sanitation and is funded by the Government of India and the World Health Organization.
2. The National Institute of Urban Affairs is an apex body of the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs in Government of India and provides innovative solutions to address the challenges of Urban India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

1. Central Water Commission
2. Central Ground Water Board
3. Central Ground Water Authority
4. National Water Development Agency

1. It is a committee set up by the UN Security Council and works under its supervision.
2. It traditionally meets in March, June and September every year.
3. It assesses the credentials of al! UN members before submitting a report to the General Assembly for approval.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 3 only
2. 1 and 3
3. 2 and 3
4. 1 and 2

1. It is the international code of safety for ships operating in polar waters.
2. It is the agreement of the countries around the North Pole regarding the demarcation of their territories in the polar region.
3. It is a set of norms to be followed by the countries whose scientists undertake research studies in the North Pole and South Pole.
4. It is a trade and security agreement of the member countries of the Arctic Council.

1. The UN General Assembly can grant observer status to the non-member States.
2. Inter-governmental organisations can seek observer status in the UN General Assembly.
3. Permanent Observers in the UN General Assembly can maintain missions at the UN headquarters.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

1. The Tea Board is a statutory body.
2. It is a regulatory body attached to the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare.
3. The Tea Board’s Head Office is situated in Bengaluru.
4. The Board has overseas offices at Dubai and Moscow.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1 and 3
2. 2 and 4
3. 3 and 4
4. 1 and 4

Tea Board is functioning as a statutory body of the Central Government under the Ministry of Commerce.

Tea Board’s head office is situated in Kolkata.

1. Conveying a false impression that a company’s products are eco-friendly and environmentally sound
2. Non-inclusion of ecological/ environmental costs in the Annual Financial Statements of a country
3. Ignoring the disastrous ecological consequences while undertaking infrastructure development
4. Making mandatory provisions for environmental costs in a government project/programme